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XPTPCREWX
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Consider two voltage phasors:
V1 = 1 volt @ 50°, and
V2 = 1 volt @ 30°.
It follows then that the relative phase shift between these two phasors can be expressed by any of the four following descriptions in terms of leading and lagging angle relationships.
1.) V1 Leads V2 by 20°
2.) V1 Lags V2 by 340°
3.) V2 Leads V1 by 340°
4.) V2 Lags V1 by 20°
My question is: By using the above lead/lag positive angle displacements, does is make any sense or is it possible to instead express these same angles in terms of their corresponding negative angle displacements? If you could express it in terms of negative angles how would it be done? Would it negate a lead or lag?
ie. Modify description 1.) to V1 Leads V2 by 20° OR EQUIVALENTLY -340°
I just want to know if this is legal mathematically/conceptually or even makes sense. Some links or references to conventions or interpretations would be nice. Thanks in advance.
V1 = 1 volt @ 50°, and
V2 = 1 volt @ 30°.
It follows then that the relative phase shift between these two phasors can be expressed by any of the four following descriptions in terms of leading and lagging angle relationships.
1.) V1 Leads V2 by 20°
2.) V1 Lags V2 by 340°
3.) V2 Leads V1 by 340°
4.) V2 Lags V1 by 20°
My question is: By using the above lead/lag positive angle displacements, does is make any sense or is it possible to instead express these same angles in terms of their corresponding negative angle displacements? If you could express it in terms of negative angles how would it be done? Would it negate a lead or lag?
ie. Modify description 1.) to V1 Leads V2 by 20° OR EQUIVALENTLY -340°
I just want to know if this is legal mathematically/conceptually or even makes sense. Some links or references to conventions or interpretations would be nice. Thanks in advance.