twoflower
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Hi all,
I don't fully understand the proof of uniqueness of limit of function. Our teacher proved it using the Heine's theorem. Here it is:
Proof:
Let \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = A and \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = B.
Let \left{ x_{n} \right} satisfies: \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} = a. Then
<br /> \Longrightarrow^{Heine}<br /> \begin{array}{cc}\lim f\left( x_{n} \right) = A\\\lim f\left( x_{n} \right) = B\end{array}\right<br />
Ok, I understand this, because according to Heine it's equivalent. But I don't get the next step:
<br /> \Longrightarrow^{\mbox{Uniqueness of limit of sequence}} A = B \Longrightarrow^{Heine 2} \mbox{Uniqueness of limit of function}<br />
How can I use the uniqueness of limit of sequence here, when f\left( x_{n} \right) is not a sequence, but a function?
Thank you for the explanation.
I don't fully understand the proof of uniqueness of limit of function. Our teacher proved it using the Heine's theorem. Here it is:
Proof:
Let \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = A and \lim_{x \rightarrow a} f(x) = B.
Let \left{ x_{n} \right} satisfies: \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} x_{n} = a. Then
<br /> \Longrightarrow^{Heine}<br /> \begin{array}{cc}\lim f\left( x_{n} \right) = A\\\lim f\left( x_{n} \right) = B\end{array}\right<br />
Ok, I understand this, because according to Heine it's equivalent. But I don't get the next step:
<br /> \Longrightarrow^{\mbox{Uniqueness of limit of sequence}} A = B \Longrightarrow^{Heine 2} \mbox{Uniqueness of limit of function}<br />
How can I use the uniqueness of limit of sequence here, when f\left( x_{n} \right) is not a sequence, but a function?
Thank you for the explanation.