Yes, I am most definitely sure. I don't care who he is, the fathers of Quantum Mechanics tell otherwise.
I think the confusion arises first because he is talking about intrinsic magnetic moment of the electron. According to the Dirac theory (which is linearized in energy, but still relativistic!), the g-factor for the electron is exactly 2. This was one of the great triumphs of Dirac's theory.
Nevertheless, the term linearized might mean two different context and I cannot reach a conclusion from that quote alone. It could mean, as I said, that you "linearize" the energy momentum relation:
<br />
(E - e \Phi)^{2} = c^{2} (\mathbf{p} - \frac{e}{c} \mathbf{A})^{2} + m^{2} c^{4}<br />
to
<br />
\left[ \hat{\beta} \, \left(i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t} - e \, \Phi \right) - c (\hat{\beta} \cdot \hat{\alpha}_{k}) \left( - i \hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{k}} - \frac{e}{c} \, A_{k} \right) - m c^{2} \, \hat{1} \right] \Psi = \hat{0}<br />
as was first done by Dirac (who showed that the matrices have to anticommute!).
Alternatively, it could mean that the full theory, according to QED, is an interacting theory of a Dirac field with a U(1) vector gauge field (the Electromagnetic field). If we treat the electromagnetic field as a classical field (with no dynamics on its own), then we would get the same equation as before for the Dirac spinor field. Nevertheless, if we recalculate the vertex at one-loop, we would get an anomalous magnetic moment as predicted by QED and not by Dirac theory and measured experimentally.
Nevertheless, for the purposes of our discussion, it is essential that the Dirac equation is fully relativistically covariant equation and it predicts an intrinsic magnetic moment for the electron. It also predicts an intrinsic spin. But, it is not non-relativistic!
