Possible Outcomes of Measuring Spin-1 Particle in Different Axes

DanAbnormal
Messages
21
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



A spin-1 particle is measured in a stern gerlach device, set up to measure S_{z}. What are the possible outcomes?

In this case, the outcome is zero. The same particle is measured by a second deviced which measures S_{x}. What are the possible outcomes of this measurement and their respective probabilities?

Homework Equations



S_{x}
567befd85d4aad993b3ad34d999ab108.png


S_{z}
c3e2f9ac1d85eec4ab1ed3ce35312711.png


The Attempt at a Solution



So for the first part, acting S_{z} on the orthonormal basis for a spin 1 particle (m_{s}= -1, 0, 1) gives the possible outcomes -\hbar, 0 and \hbar

In this case, the measurement is zero, which means the particle is in the state with m_{s} = 0.

Now for this next part, making a measurement of the S_{x} observable of this particle, do I need to diagonalise the S_{x} matrix, or is it enough to act S_{x} straight onto the vector for m_{s} = 0? If I do the latter, it gives a superposition state of the m_{s} = 1 and m_{s} = -1 vectors, both multiplied by \hbar/\sqrt{2}, and this isn't an eigenfunction of S_{x}... is it?

I was trying to think about this physically. If the first measurement gives a value of zero for spin along the z axis then this means spin must be aligned either along the y-axis or x axis. So upon making the second measurement, the possible outcomes for spin along the x-axis must be zero (if the spin is along y) or the either plus/minus the component of spin along the x-axis.
So the main question is, are the possible outcomes for the second measurement 0, and whatever value I get for acting S_{x} onto the vector for m_{s} = 0, or do I need to diagonalise the S_{x} to get the true eigenvalues/eigenvectors of S_{x}? As I understood, all spin measurements are made relative to the z axis...

Im just a bit confused is all.

Cheers
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Your answer to the first question is correct.

Second question
Once the measurement is made, the particle is in state (0,1,0) or |0> according to your suggested orthonormal set. What do you get when you operate on this state with Jx?
 
kuruman said:
Your answer to the first question is correct.

Second question
Once the measurement is made, the particle is in state (0,1,0) or |0> according to your suggested orthonormal set. What do you get when you operate on this state with Jx?

When I act Jx onto |0> I get the added superposition of |1> and |-1> [(1,0,0) and (0,0,1)] both weighted by \hbar/2

But |0> is not an eigenvector of Jx is it? so what meaning does this action have? If the measurement in the z-axis defined the particle to be in state |0> in that axis, then does this not imply the spin of the particle must be aligned in either the x or y axes?
 
DanAbnormal said:
When I act Jx onto |0> I get the added superposition of |1> and |-1> [(1,0,0) and (0,0,1)] both weighted by \hbar/2

But |0> is not an eigenvector of Jx is it?
It is not. However, regardless of what component you measure, the result of the measurement can only be -1, 0 or +1. What differs from orientation to orientation with each measurement is the probability of getting one of the three results. So in this particular case, what are the probabilities of getting -1, 0 or +1?

Incidentally, the weights of each state must be pure numbers, hbar should not be in the picture.
 
kuruman said:
It is not. However, regardless of what component you measure, the result of the measurement can only be -1, 0 or +1. What differs from orientation to orientation with each measurement is the probability of getting one of the three results. So in this particular case, what are the probabilities of getting -1, 0 or +1?

Incidentally, the weights of each state must be pure numbers, hbar should not be in the picture.

Well what I did was obtain the eigenvalues of the Sx matrix (without the hbar/(root 2) element ), which turned out to be 0, and +/- root 2
I then obtained the eigenvectors, for these, which when acted on by Sx gives 0, hbar/2, and -hbar/2 as possible outcomes, and the probability I got for the +/- hbar/2 eigenvalues were each 1/2, and the 0 eigenvalue was associated with a probability of zero.

I still don't understand the difference between obtaining eigenvectors of the Sx matrix and finding outcomes from these, and acting Sx straight onto the z-axis |0> state.
Im really sorry!

Is my method correct though?
 
Once you make the first measurement, you know that your particle is in the eigenstate |0> or column vector (0,1,0). After the first measurement you make a second measurement and measure Sx. The possible outcomes of this second measurement are one of the eigenvalues of Sx, which you can get by diagonalizing Sx, namely -1, 0 or +1. Note that, after the second measurement, your particle is in one of the eigenstates of Sx and that you can obtain these eigenstates from the diagonalization process. Now then, the probability that you get a given one of the three eigenvalues after the second measurement is the square of the inner product of the original state (0,1,0), expressed as a row vector, with the (column) eigenvector of Sx corresponding to that particular eigenvalue.
 
DanAbnormal said:
I still don't understand the difference between obtaining eigenvectors of the Sx matrix and finding outcomes from these, and acting Sx straight onto the z-axis |0> state.
If a system is in the state \vert \psi \rangle, the amplitude of finding it in the state \vert \phi \rangle is A = \langle \phi \vert \psi \rangle, and the probability is then given by the modulus of the amplitude squared, P=|A|2. In this problem, \vert \phi \rangle is an eigenstates of Sx and \vert \psi \rangle is the m=0 eigenstate of Sz. Making the measurement has nothing to do with applying the operator Sx to a state. The only reason you need it is to find its eigenvalues and eigenvectors.
 
Oh thanks guys! That makes sense to me now, considering all the maths I've just done. I was following a procedure just not totally getting it. But do now!
 
Back
Top