Potential difference in a sphere relative to infinity

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around calculating the electric potential at a point inside a thin plastic spherical shell with a charge of -Q. It is established that the potential difference within a spherical shell is zero, allowing the shell to be treated as a point charge. The correct approach involves integrating the electric field from infinity to the shell's surface, yielding a potential that must account for the negative charge. Participants clarify that the negative sign is crucial, as it indicates the potential is negative near a negative charge. The final conclusion emphasizes the importance of correctly applying the Shell theorem and the sign of the charge in potential calculations.
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Homework Statement


A thin plastic spherical shell of radius a is rubbed all over with wool and gains a charge of -Q. What is the potential relative to infinity at location B, a distance a/3 from the centre of the sphere?

Homework Equations



\text{$\Delta $V}=\int _{\text{initial}}^{\text{final}}{E}.d{l}

The Attempt at a Solution


since the potential difference between any 2 points in a spherical shell is 0, point B can be anywhere in the sphere (it doesn't have to be a/3 from the centre).

so if we take point B as a point, an infinitesimal distance away from the shell (still inside the shell)

then we can treat the shell as a point charge:
\text{$\Delta $V}=\int _{\infty }^a\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon }\frac{Q}{r^{2}}dr

which just gives:
\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon }\frac{Q}{a}i don't think this answer is right. So, wheres the flaw in my logic, and how are you meant to do this question?

(edit: the epsilons are meant to have a 0 subscript)
 
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Why do you think it is wrong??

To be honest, I think that's the correct method. What you did was basically apply the Shell theorem and it does hold for any spherical shell with symmetric charge density...
 
well, i thought my answer was too simple/easy to be right i guess.
 
You have to take into account that the sphere has a charge of -Q not +Q, otherwise it's fine
 
Sleepy_time said:
You have to take into account that the sphere has a charge of -Q not +Q, otherwise it's fine

there should be a negative sign before this integral and the charge is negative. two negatives make a positive

\text{$\Delta $V}=\int _{\infty }^a\frac{1}{4\pi \epsilon }\frac{Q}{r^{2}}dr
 
Yeah sorry, I just meant it for completeness I agree with the integral just if you do the integral you get an overall negative sign, which is helpful if you want to work out the work done moving this charge from infinity to a for example.
 
Looks good. But the integral of 1/r2 is -1/ r, so the answer will have opposite sign of what you wrote. The potential is negative near a negative charge.
 
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