- #1
khfrekek92
- 88
- 0
Hi everyone! I'm currently working on this problem for which I am getting inconsistencies depending on how I do it. I'm trying to find the potential due to the quadrupole moment of the following distribution:
+q at (0,0,d), -2q at (0,0,0), and +q at (0,0,-2d)
I am doing this using two different methods and they both get different answers:1) Using the general expansion Qij=sum[ql{3ril*rjl-rl^2deltaij)] and plugging into Vquad=1/(8*pi*epsilonor^3)sum[Qij*ni*nj]
This method gives me some constant divided by r^3, with NO angular dependence whatsoever.2) Going back to the basics and using the very general potential by substituting in the addition theorem for spherical harmonics, etc to find the general potential for a general multipole moment: qlm=integral[rho*r^l*Ylm],
and
Vmulti=sum[1/(epsilono(r^(l+1)*(2l+1)*Ylm(theta,phi)*qlm]
Notice how this answer definitely depends on theta for dipole moment and above (when the spherical harmonics introduce cos(theta)'s into them.)
Doing it this method gives me the same constant divided by r^3 that I found earlier, except now it is multiplied by (3cos^2(theta)-1) which comes from exactly the Y20 spherical harmonic. These two methods SHOULD give the same results, but these are radically different... Any ideas?
Thanks!
PS sorry for the lack of Latex, but I figured most people should get the gist of it
+q at (0,0,d), -2q at (0,0,0), and +q at (0,0,-2d)
I am doing this using two different methods and they both get different answers:1) Using the general expansion Qij=sum[ql{3ril*rjl-rl^2deltaij)] and plugging into Vquad=1/(8*pi*epsilonor^3)sum[Qij*ni*nj]
This method gives me some constant divided by r^3, with NO angular dependence whatsoever.2) Going back to the basics and using the very general potential by substituting in the addition theorem for spherical harmonics, etc to find the general potential for a general multipole moment: qlm=integral[rho*r^l*Ylm],
and
Vmulti=sum[1/(epsilono(r^(l+1)*(2l+1)*Ylm(theta,phi)*qlm]
Notice how this answer definitely depends on theta for dipole moment and above (when the spherical harmonics introduce cos(theta)'s into them.)
Doing it this method gives me the same constant divided by r^3 that I found earlier, except now it is multiplied by (3cos^2(theta)-1) which comes from exactly the Y20 spherical harmonic. These two methods SHOULD give the same results, but these are radically different... Any ideas?
Thanks!
PS sorry for the lack of Latex, but I figured most people should get the gist of it