Probability of electron in a box problem

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of finding an electron within specific intervals in a one-dimensional box, using a given wavefunction. The subject area is quantum mechanics, specifically focusing on wavefunctions and probability distributions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to determine whether to assume the wavefunction is normalized or to normalize it themselves. They express uncertainty about how to begin the calculation of probability using the wavefunction.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights regarding the normalization of the wavefunction and the probabilistic interpretation of quantum mechanics. There is an acknowledgment of the method to calculate probability through integration, but the original poster's initial confusion remains a point of discussion.

Contextual Notes

The original poster refers to a normalization equation and expresses concern about the wording of their question. There is also a subsequent post that shifts the focus to a different problem involving eigenfunctions, indicating a potential branching of the discussion.

TLeo198
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Homework Statement


Calculate the probability that an electron will be found (a) between x = 0.1 and 0.2 nm, (b) between 4.9 and 5.2 nm in a box of length L = 10 nm when its wavefunction is psi = (2/L)^1/2 sin(2*pi*x/L).

Homework Equations


As far as I know, only the normalization equation, which is A^2 * Integral(psi^2) = 1

The Attempt at a Solution


My problem is actually how to start it. Should I assume that the wavefunction is already normalized, or should I normalize the wavefunction by equating the integral of the squared wavefunction to 1, then solve for A? Sorry if wording of the question is bad. Any help is appreciated.
 
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It looks like the wavefunction is already normalized. Its easy to check.

The fundamental principle of the probabilistic interpretation of quantum mechanics is that the probability of finding a particle between points a and b, is equal to the integral of the wave-function squared over that interval:

[tex] P(a<x<b) = \int_a^b |\Psi(x) |^2 dx[/tex]
 
I was able to solve it, thanks!
 
Given two normalized but non-orthogonal eigen functions, psi=(1/sqrt(pi))exp(-r) and phi=(1/sqrt(3pi))rexp(-r). Construct a new function PSI which is orthogonal to the first function and is normalized.

Can anyone help me please?


Many many thanks for your kind help.

MSPNS
 

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