Is [a]^-1 = [0] if and only if p|a?

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In summary: So, in summary, this question is asking if a does not equal 0, then p|a cannot exist. However, because a does not equal 0, p|a also cannot exist.
  • #1
zoner7
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Homework Statement


in Zp, where a does not equal 0, that [a][x] = [a][y] is the same as [x] = [y].

This was a question on a test I just finished. Just curious how wrong my answer is. So I sort of ignored the congruence class part. I just said:

* [a]^-1 represents the inverse of [a] *

[a][x] = [a][y]
[a]^-1[a][x] = [a][y][a]^-1 (by associative law)
[1][x] = [1][y] (by the law of inverses)
[x] = [y] (since 1 is the identity element under multiplication in congruence classes).

so yea... did i do anything right?

thanks for the help in advance
 
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  • #2
At the very least mention why you think [a]-1 should exist. (it's non-zero). In fact, this is technically correct but I suspect more detail was expected (since if you know Zp is a field, this is a useless question). Here's how you probably were supposed to do it (I left two details to fill in)

[a][x] = [a][y] if and only if p|(ax-ay) if and only if p|a(x-y)

p|a(x-y) implies p|a or p|(x-y) (why?)

p does not divide a (why?)

Hence p|(x-y) and this gives [x]=[y]

and you can run the same thing backwards

EDIT TO ADD: I forgot to mention I'm assuming p is prime here, as otherwise the question's wrong
 
  • #3
p|a(x-y) implies p|a or p|(x-y) (why?)
This is true, because since p is prime, we are able to apply Euclid's lemma.

p does not divide a (why?)
I honestly couldn't tell you why p does not divide a.

so... did I do anything correct at all...?
 
  • #4
zoner7 said:
p does not divide a (why?)
I honestly couldn't tell you why p does not divide a.

Go back and read the question carefully... what do you know about a?


so... did I do anything correct at all...?

Nothing you did was wrong per se, it's just that you didn't support why there should exist a congruence class of the form [a]-1, which was probably what was expected of you (alternatively, and easier is the argument I posted).
 
  • #5
Office_Shredder said:
Go back and read the question carefully... what do you know about a?
/QUOTE]

ahh, got you.

A does not equal 0. but why does that mean that p cannot divide a. any prime p divides into 0.
 
  • #6
By definition

[a] = [0] if and only if p|a
 

Related to Is [a]^-1 = [0] if and only if p|a?

What is the proof of cancellation law?

The proof of cancellation law states that if two fractions are equal, then their numerators and denominators can be multiplied or divided by the same number without changing the value of the fractions.

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The proof of cancellation law works by recognizing that when two fractions are equal, they represent the same part of a whole. Therefore, multiplying or dividing both the numerator and denominator by the same number does not change the value of the fraction, as it is still representing the same part of the whole.

Can the proof of cancellation law be applied to all fractions?

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The proof of cancellation law is important because it allows for simplifying fractions and solving equations involving fractions. It also helps in understanding the concept of equivalent fractions and the relationship between different fractions.

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