Proving the Limit of n! / n^n = 0 to Using Sequence Definition

  • Thread starter Thread starter courtrigrad
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Limit Proof
AI Thread Summary
To prove that the limit of n! / n^n approaches 0 as n approaches infinity, one can compare the growth rates of n! and n^n. The factorial n! grows slower than n^n since n! is the product of decreasing integers while n^n is a constant base raised to the power of n. A suggested approach involves using the ratio test to show that the sequence converges, demonstrating that n! is bounded by a fraction of n^n. Additionally, analyzing the sequence with even integers can help establish that n! is significantly smaller than n^n as n increases. Ultimately, these methods confirm that the limit is indeed 0.
courtrigrad
Messages
1,236
Reaction score
2
how would you prove

lim (n! / n^n) = 0
n--> 00


Should I use the definition of a sequence? like n! < what

n^n is less than what? and find limit of this?

thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I'm sorry...I'm kind of rusty with this stuff, so I can't offer anything that would constitute a proof, but at first glance, I noticed the following:

n^n = n \cdot n \cdot n \cdot n...n \cdot n \cdot n
'n' times

WHEREAS

n! = n(n-1)(n-2)...3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1.

Clearly, the first product is larger than the second, and in the limit as n approaches infinity, the difference between them will be on the order of infinity as well, so if the denominator is infinitely larger than the numerator...

I realize this doesn't help answer the question. Also, I've heard that it is not correct to think of a power such as x^n [/tex] as &#039;n&#039; x&#039;s multiplied together, but I cannot remember why. Can someone clarify?
 
Last edited:
I don't think that's right
 
Maybe you can split the fraction into the product two parts... one that goes to zero, and one that's bounded...
 
Just a rough guess:

Use the ratio test to show that the sequence converges (where n only takes on integral values) and then use that to show that the function converges (assuming there some sort of rule that says you can do that).
 
You could show that the sequence is monotonically decreasing.
i.e. show that:
\frac{(n+1)!}{(n+1)^{n+1}}&lt;\frac{n!}{n^n}
Together with the fact that the sequence is bounded below...
 
The simplest way is to look at the sequence using even integers (n=2m):
Then:
n!\leq(\frac{n}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}n^{\frac{n}{2}}
n^{n}=n^{\frac{n}{2}}n^{\frac{n}{2}}
Hence, your ratio is bounded by:
\frac{n!}{n^{n}}\leq(\frac{1}{2})^{\frac{n}{2}}

This is, of course, along the lines Hurkyl indicated.
 
Last edited:
ok thanks a lot everyone. Thats what the book wanted me to do.
 
Back
Top