- #1
sdrmybrat
- 1
- 0
Prove that:
∀ n€N [(the) sum of an (infinite?) series (a1,+a2,...+,an)] (where [tex]a_{n}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{n}{(n+1)!}[/tex])
[tex]\sum \frac{n}{(n+1)!}[/tex] (is equal to/gives/yields) = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
Prove that:
∀ n [tex]\in[/tex] N [tex]\sum \frac{n}{(n+1)!}[/tex] = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
THX in advance
∀ n€N [(the) sum of an (infinite?) series (a1,+a2,...+,an)] (where [tex]a_{n}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{n}{(n+1)!}[/tex])
[tex]\sum \frac{n}{(n+1)!}[/tex] (is equal to/gives/yields) = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
Prove that:
∀ n [tex]\in[/tex] N [tex]\sum \frac{n}{(n+1)!}[/tex] = 1 - [tex]\frac{1}{(n+1)!}[/tex]
THX in advance