MHB Property of real-valued Fourier transformation

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A signal with a real-valued Fourier transformation does not necessarily imply that the signal itself is real-valued. The discussion highlights that while the real part of the Fourier transform corresponds to an even function and the imaginary part to an odd function, the signal can still contain imaginary components. An example provided is the Fourier transform of a delta function, which results in a signal that includes both real and imaginary parts. The key takeaway is that the signal can be Hermitian, meaning it satisfies certain symmetry properties, but can still have non-zero imaginary components. Thus, the properties of the Fourier transformation do not restrict the signal to being purely real.
mathmari
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Hey! :o

When it is given that a signal $x(t)$ has a real-valued Fourier transformation $X(f)$ then is the signal necessarily real-valued?

I have thought the following:

$X_R(ω)=\frac{1}{2}[X(ω)+X^{\star}(ω)]⟺\frac{1}{2}[x(t)+x^{\star}(−t)]=x_e(t) \\ X_I(ω)=\frac{1}{2i} [X(ω)−X^{\star}(ω)]⟺ \frac{1}{2i}[x(t)−x^{\star}(−t)]=−i⋅x_o(t)$

where $X_R(ω)$ and $X_I(ω)$ are the real and imaginary parts of $X(ω)$, and $x_e(t)$ and $x_o(t)$ are the even and odd parts of $x(t)$, respectively.So the odd part of $x$ is $0$ and the even one is real-valued, and so the signal $x(t)$ is real-valued.Is everything correct? Are the above properties known or do we have to derive them? (Wondering)
 
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Hey mathmari!

Wiki lists such a property.
If $X(\omega)$ is real, then $x(t)$ is Hermitian. That is, $x(-t)=x^*(t)$.
It still means that $x(t)$ can be imaginary, but the imaginary part must be odd. Additionally the real part must be even. (Nerd)

Consider for instance $X(\omega)=2\pi\delta(\omega-1)$. It's real isn't it?
Its inverse Fourier transform is $x(t)=\cos t+i\sin t$.
As you can see the real part is even and the imaginary part is odd.
Furthermore, the odd part $x_o(t)$ is indeed $0$, but the even part $x_e(t)$ has an imaginary component. (Worried)
 
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