Prove Complex Conjugate: z=cisθ

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on proving the relationship between a complex number in polar form, specifically z=cis(θ), and its conjugate. It is established that the complex conjugate of z is given by cos(θ) - i sin(θ), not by the reciprocal of the conjugate. The correct relationship is clarified as 1/z = conjugate(z), and the process of rationalizing the denominator is emphasized as a crucial step in simplifying expressions involving complex numbers.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of complex numbers and their representation in polar form (cis(θ)).
  • Familiarity with complex conjugates and their properties.
  • Knowledge of rationalizing denominators in complex fractions.
  • Basic trigonometric identities involving sine and cosine.
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of complex conjugates in depth.
  • Learn about polar and rectangular forms of complex numbers.
  • Explore the process of rationalizing denominators in complex arithmetic.
  • Investigate the implications of Euler's formula in complex analysis.
USEFUL FOR

Students studying complex analysis, mathematicians working with complex numbers, and anyone looking to deepen their understanding of polar coordinates and their applications in mathematics.

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Homework Statement


i am supposed to prove that for the complex number z=cis\theta
the conjugate is \frac{1}{\overline{z}}


Homework Equations


if
z=a+bi
\overline{z}=a-bi

The Attempt at a Solution


all that i can think of is that \frac{1}{cos\theta i sin \theta}
=(cos \theta i sin \theta)-1

i have also just tried it with a random complex number such as w=2+3i
still how does \overline{w}=1/2+3i ?

Im very lost...
 
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\frac{1}{\overline z}
is NOT equal to
\frac{1}{cos(\theta)isin(\theta)}

Also your problem, as stated, is wrong- the complex conjugate of z= cis(\theta) is not 1 over the complex conjugate of z.
\frac{1}{\overline{z}= z
or
\frac{1}{z}= \overline{z}.

The complex conjugate of cis(\theta)= cos(\theta)+ i sin(\theta) is cos(\theta)- i sin(\theta).

The reciprocal of that is, of course,
\frac{1}{cos(\theta)- i sin(\theta)}

Now, "rationalize the denominator"- multiply both numerator and denominator by cos(\theta)+ i sin(\theta)

Conversely,
\frac{1}{z}= \frac{1}{cos(\theta)+ i sin(\theta)}

Multiply both numerator and denominator by cos(\theta)- i sin(\theta).
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Ah that makes it a lot easyer, i totally forgot about when the denominator is imaginary that you multiply both numerator and denomiator by the conjugate.
Thanks a lot!
 

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