# Prove inf(A)=0 *Practice*

## Homework Statement

Suppose A={$$\frac{1}{1}$$,$$\frac{1}{2}$$,....}={$$\frac{1}{n}$$|n$$\in{Z^+}$$}

## The Attempt at a Solution

Could you take the limit of $$\frac{1}{n}$$ as $$\infty$$ to prove this, or would I go about it a different route?