Prove inf(A)=0 *Practice*

  • #1

Homework Statement


Suppose A={[tex]\frac{1}{1}[/tex],[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex],....}={[tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex]|n[tex]\in{Z^+}[/tex]}

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Could you take the limit of [tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex] as [tex]\infty[/tex] to prove this, or would I go about it a different route?
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
jgens
Gold Member
1,583
50
Just use the definition of an infimum. There's no need to invoke limits.
 

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