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Prove inf(A)=0 *Practice*

  1. Sep 15, 2010 #1
    1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
    Suppose A={[tex]\frac{1}{1}[/tex],[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex],....}={[tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex]|n[tex]\in{Z^+}[/tex]}

    2. Relevant equations

    3. The attempt at a solution
    Could you take the limit of [tex]\frac{1}{n}[/tex] as [tex]\infty[/tex] to prove this, or would I go about it a different route?
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 15, 2010 #2


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    Gold Member

    Just use the definition of an infimum. There's no need to invoke limits.
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