Prove that T(G) is subgroup of G

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The discussion focuses on proving that T(G) is a subgroup of G by verifying the subgroup axioms. The proof attempts to show closure under the group operation, the existence of an identity element, and the presence of inverses for all elements in T(G). Key points include the necessity of correctly identifying the identity element of G and ensuring that the closure property is valid for arbitrary elements of T(G) without assuming the same exponent for different elements. The proof ultimately confirms that T(G) satisfies all subgroup criteria.

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Homework Statement


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Homework Equations


subgroup axioms:

1. a, b in T(G), then ab in T(G)
2. existence of identity element.
3. a in T(G), then a^-1 in T(G)

The Attempt at a Solution



1.

let a be in T(G), then a^n = e.
let b be in T(G), then b^n = e

(ab)^n = (a^n)(b^n) = (e)(e) = e

axiom 1 holds.

2.

let e be in T(G), then e^n = e

conclusion: identity element, e, of G, must be 1.

3.

let a be in T(G), then a^n = e.

show that (a^-1)^n = e

(a^-1)^n = (a^n)^-1 = 1 / a^n = 1 / e

therefore

(a^-1)^n = 1 / e

we know from axiom 2 that e = 1, so:

1 / e = e.

Done.

Is my proof correct? there's not markscheme, can't check answer,
 
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There is an error in showing that T is closed under the operation. If x is in T then there exist some number, n, such that x^n= e. If y is in T then there exist some integer m such that y^m= e. You CANNOT assume that m and n are the same. So look at (xy)^{mn}= (x^n)^m(x^m)^n.

To show that there is an identity element you start by saying "Let e be in T(G) then e^n= e and then say "conclusion: identity element of G, e, is 1". That is meaningless!
First, there is no "1" mentioned in the problem. Further, you simply assert that e is in T(G), not that it is an identity element. Nothing you say there has any connection to there being an identity element in T(G).

Instead start by saying "Let e be the identity of G (NOT T(G)). Then, because e^n= e (for all n, not just one), e is in T(G). And since T(G) is a subgroup of G it is also true that ex= xe= x for any x in G. Therefore e, the identity for G, is also the identity for T(G).

Whether you can simply assert that (a^-1)^n= (a^n)^-1 depends upon previous theorems you have proved. Of course, it is true that, since G is abelian, (a^n)(a^-1)^n= e (do you see why "abelian is important?) so that (a^-1)^n= (a^n)^-1.
 
HallsofIvy said:
There is an error in showing that T is closed under the operation. If x is in T then there exist some number, n, such that x^n= e. If y is in T then there exist some integer m such that y^m= e. You CANNOT assume that m and n are the same. So look at (xy)^{mn}= (x^n)^m(x^m)^n.

To show that there is an identity element you start by saying "Let e be in T(G) then e^n= e and then say "conclusion: identity element of G, e, is 1". That is meaningless!
First, there is no "1" mentioned in the problem. Further, you simply assert that e is in T(G), not that it is an identity element. Nothing you say there has any connection to there being an identity element in T(G).

Instead start by saying "Let e be the identity of G (NOT T(G)). Then, because e^n= e (for all n, not just one), e is in T(G). And since T(G) is a subgroup of G it is also true that ex= xe= x for any x in G. Therefore e, the identity for G, is also the identity for T(G).

Whether you can simply assert that (a^-1)^n= (a^n)^-1 depends upon previous theorems you have proved. Of course, it is true that, since G is abelian, (a^n)(a^-1)^n= e (do you see why "abelian is important?) so that (a^-1)^n= (a^n)^-1.
1.

a in T, there exists n such that a^n = e
b in T, there exists m such that b^m = e

(ab)^mn = (a^n)^m (b^m)^n = e^m e^n = e

axiom 1 holds.

2.

let e be identiy in G
e^n = e ==> e in T(G)

T(G) subgroup of G, it's also true that ea = ae =a for all a in G

conclusion: idenity of G, e, is also identity for T(G).

Axiom 2 holds.

3.

this is where I am confused:

Prove that : a in T(G) ====> a^-1 in T(G)

proof:

(a^-1)^n = e
(a^n) (a^-1)^n = (a^n) e
(a)^n (a^-1)^n = (a^n)
(a a^-1)^n = a^n
e^n = a^n

and a^n = e, so:

e^n = e

LHS = RHS

axiom 3 holds.

Am i going along the right lines?
 

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