Prove using three basic probability axioms

AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around proving the inequality P(A ∩ B) ≥ 1 - P(¬A) - P(¬B) for events A and B within a sample space S, using three basic probability axioms. The initial proof attempt rearranges terms and applies axiom 3 to demonstrate that the sum of probabilities leads to a valid conclusion. However, a participant points out that the proof should begin by assuming the opposite of what is to be proven and then deriving a contradiction. This highlights the importance of a structured approach in mathematical proofs, emphasizing the need for logical consistency. The conversation ultimately focuses on refining the proof methodology to align with standard practices in probability theory.
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Homework Statement


Prove that P(A \cap B)≥1-P(\bar{A})-P(\bar{B})

for all A, B \subseteq Susing only these axioms:
1) 0 \leq P(A) \leq 1, for any event A \subseteq S
2) P(S) = 1
3) P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) if and only if P(A \cap B) = 0

Homework Equations


None.

The Attempt at a Solution



My proof:

First rearrange the shizzle:

P(\bar{A}) + P(A \cap B) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1

Now using the fact that the first two terms are disjoint, use axiom 3 to obtain:

P(\bar{A} \cup (A \cap B)) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1

Next note that the first term is equals to P(S), hence we get:

P(S) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1

which holds for all B \subseteq S, because P(S) = 1 and P(\bar{B}) \geq 0 for all B.

Is this proof correct?
 
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hassman said:

Homework Statement


Prove that P(A \cap B)≥1-P(\bar{A})-P(\bar{B})

for all A, B \subseteq S


using only these axioms:
1) 0 \leq P(A) \leq 1, for any event A \subseteq S
2) P(S) = 1
3) P(A \cup B) = P(A) + P(B) if and only if P(A \cap B) = 0


Homework Equations


None.


The Attempt at a Solution



My proof:

First rearrange the shizzle:

P(\bar{A}) + P(A \cap B) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1

Now using the fact that the first two terms are disjoint, use axiom 3 to obtain:

P(\bar{A} \cup (A \cap B)) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1

Next note that the first term is equals to P(S), hence we get:

P(S) + P(\bar{B}) \geq 1

which holds for all B \subseteq S, because P(S) = 1 and P(\bar{B}) \geq 0 for all B.

Is this proof correct?

In proof you can't start out claiming what you are trying to prove - you can only claim it isn't true and arriving at a contradiction. So you would say

Suppose P(A \cap B)<1-P(\bar{A})-P(\bar{B}) then try to arrive at a contradiction.
 
Got it! Thanks!
 
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