Proving an Inequality: (1+a)q < q/(1-a) for a < 1 and Positive Real Numbers

  • Thread starter Thread starter grissom1988
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inequality
AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on proving the inequality (1+a)q < q/(1-a) for a < 1 and positive real numbers q. Participants suggest manipulating the inequality by introducing (1-a^2) to the left-hand side, leading to the conclusion that (1+a)q < q/(1-a). However, it is pointed out that the proof has logical gaps, as one must show that a true statement implies the desired result, rather than the reverse. Additionally, the necessity of retaining the variable q is debated, with the consensus that as long as q is positive, its specific value does not affect the truth of the inequality. The conversation emphasizes the importance of rigorous proof techniques in mathematical discussions.
grissom1988
Messages
2
Reaction score
0
Hello to everyone. This is my first time here so I hope I will not cause any unwanted trouble.

Straight to the problem. I have one inequality for which I would like to prove, but I do not know how. The inequality has the following form:-

(1+a)q < q/(1-a), where a < 1 and q can be any positive real number.

Can someone hint me the direction to prove this? So far, I tried to tackle the inequality by substituting a with different real number smaller than 1, and there is no discrepancy to the inequality.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
grissom1988 said:
Hello to everyone. This is my first time here so I hope I will not cause any unwanted trouble.

Straight to the problem. I have one inequality for which I would like to prove, but I do not know how. The inequality has the following form:-

(1+a)q < q/(1-a), where a < 1 and q can be any positive real number.

Can someone hint me the direction to prove this? So far, I tried to tackle the inequality by substituting a with different real number smaller than 1, and there is no discrepancy to the inequality.
If a < 1, then 1-a > 0, in other words 1-a is positive, so you can multiply both sides of the inequality by 1-a.
 
grissom1988 said:
Hello to everyone. This is my first time here so I hope I will not cause any unwanted trouble.

Straight to the problem. I have one inequality for which I would like to prove, but I do not know how. The inequality has the following form:-

(1+a)q < q/(1-a), where a < 1 and q can be any positive real number.

Can someone hint me the direction to prove this? So far, I tried to tackle the inequality by substituting a with different real number smaller than 1, and there is no discrepancy to the inequality.

Do you really need to keep the 'q'? In other words, as long as q > 0 can you just replace it by q = 1 and still have a true inequality?

RGV
 
grissom1988 said:
Hello to everyone. This is my first time here so I hope I will not cause any unwanted trouble.

Straight to the problem. I have one inequality for which I would like to prove, but I do not know how. The inequality has the following form:-

(1+a)q < q/(1-a), where a < 1 and q can be any positive real number.

Can someone hint me the direction to prove this? So far, I tried to tackle the inequality by substituting a with different real number smaller than 1, and there is no discrepancy to the inequality.

I am sorry because I did not put any solid calculation to my question. However, I found a solution to the inequality:-

Originally,

q = q

If I introduce (1-a^2) at the LHS,

(1-a^2)q < q, since a < 1

Also, (1-a^2) = (1+a)(1-a),

Hence (1+a)q < q/(1-a)

Is that a solid proof?

P/s: The q is an important quantity which cannot be deleted. Sorry that I did not mention it earlier.
 
grissom1988 said:
I am sorry because I did not put any solid calculation to my question. However, I found a solution to the inequality:-

Originally,

q = q

If I introduce (1-a^2) at the LHS,

(1-a^2)q < q, since a < 1

Also, (1-a^2) = (1+a)(1-a),

Hence (1+a)q < q/(1-a)

Is that a solid proof?

P/s: The q is an important quantity which cannot be deleted. Sorry that I did not mention it earlier.

You are getting the idea, but the proof still has holes. Here is why. You start with the statement you want to prove, then introduce some manipulations and end up with another statement that you know to be true. In other words, logically you have (Result) implies (some true statement). What you really need to do is go the other way: (some true statement) implies (Result). This is important, because it is possible to have a false statement imply a true one.

Also: your statement that it is important to keep q is wrong. For example, if q = 7 we want to show that 7(1+a) < 7/(1-a). Would it then not also be true that 5(1+a) < 5/(1-a), or 0.001(1+a) < 0.001/(1-a), or 1(1+a) < 1/(1-a)? Do you really think that the exact value of q contributes to the truth of the inequality? Of course, q must be positive.

RGV
 
I picked up this problem from the Schaum's series book titled "College Mathematics" by Ayres/Schmidt. It is a solved problem in the book. But what surprised me was that the solution to this problem was given in one line without any explanation. I could, therefore, not understand how the given one-line solution was reached. The one-line solution in the book says: The equation is ##x \cos{\omega} +y \sin{\omega} - 5 = 0##, ##\omega## being the parameter. From my side, the only thing I could...
Back
Top