Proving continuity of two-variable function

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on determining the continuity of the two-variable function defined as f(x,y) = (xy³)/(x²+y⁴) - 2x + 3y for (x,y) ≠ (0,0) and f(0,0) = 0. The limit as (x,y) approaches (0,0) is evaluated using polar coordinates, leading to the conclusion that the limit is zero as r approaches zero, regardless of the angle φ. The participants confirm that once simplified, the limit indeed approaches zero, establishing continuity at the origin.

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  • Understanding of two-variable limits in calculus
  • Familiarity with polar coordinates conversion
  • Knowledge of continuity in multivariable functions
  • Basic algebraic manipulation of limits
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  • Study the concept of continuity in multivariable calculus
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twoflower
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Hello to everybody.

Yesterday we wrote a fake test, in which I encountered problem I haven't benn able to solve so far.

The problem is given this way:

Let

[tex] f(x,y) := \left\{\begin{array}{cc}\frac{xy^3}{x^2+y^4} - 2x + 3y,&[x,y] \neq [0,0]\\0, &[x,y] = [0,0]\end{array}\right.[/tex]

Find out, whether the function [itex]f[/tex] in point [0,0] is continuous[/itex][itex] <br /> Well, to be continuous in origin, it has to have zero limit as [x,y] approaches [0,0].<br /> <br /> I get<br /> <br /> [tex] \lim_{[x,y] \rightarrow [0,0]} \frac{xy^3}{x^2+y^4} - 2x + 3y[/tex]<br /> <br /> after converting to polar coordinates (which proved to be very useful when limiting two-variable functions) I have<br /> <br /> [tex] \lim_{r \rightarrow 0} \frac{r^4\cos \varphi \sin^3 \varphi}{r^2\cos^2 \varphi\ +\ r^4\sin^4 \varphi}\ -\ 2\lim_{r \rightarrow 0} r\cos \varphi\ +\ 3\lim_{r \rightarrow 0} r\sin \varphi = \lim_{r \rightarrow 0} r\cos\varphi \sin^3 \varphi\ \frac{r}{\cos^2 \varphi\ +\ r^2 \sin^4 \varphi}[/tex]<br /> <br /> The first part goes to zero so it would be sufficient to show that the second part is bounded. And that's where I got stuck. <br /> <br /> Horse sense tells me this: if [itex]\varphi[/itex] is such that [itex]\varphi[/itex] is non-zero, the whole limit is zero. If [itex]\cos \varphi[/itex] is zero, then the limit is still zero...but I'm not sure of this and definitely it's not an acceptable mathematical solution. But I'm unable to prove this elegantly at this point...<br /> <br /> Thank you very much for pointing me to the right direction.[/itex]
 
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after you convert to polar and simplify all you have to do is find the limit as r goes to zero, phi can do anything. when r goes to zero your limit is zero.
 
math-chick_41 said:
after you convert to polar and simplify all you have to do is find the limit as r goes to zero, phi can do anything. when r goes to zero your limit is zero.

Are you sure? Can it be so easily seen? I still have some doubts...

And one more question, can you see some further simplification there?
 

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