Proving Divisibility Property: ab|ac implies b|c

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The discussion centers on proving the divisibility property that if ab divides ac, then b must divide c, given that a, b, and c are integers with a not equal to zero. The initial confusion arises from the manipulation of the equation ac = ab·k, leading to attempts to simplify and isolate terms. The key realization is that if a(c - kb) = 0 and a is non-zero, then c must equal kb, confirming that b divides c. The participant seeks clarification on their approach and the validity of their steps, particularly after receiving a hint from the professor that caused further confusion. Ultimately, the proof hinges on the correct application of the properties of divisibility.
SeanThatOneGuy
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I'm really having trouble with this proof. at first I thought, oh easy the a's cancel then I realized I am proving that property so that was no help at all. Here is my work so far:

--snip--
Let a, b, and c be integers with a≠0.
If ab|ac, we know from the definition of "divides" that there is an integer k, such that ac=ab⋅k

Then (a - c⋅k) = 0 so k(a - b⋅k) = 0

Since we know that a≠0, then b|c.
--snip--

I'm pretty sure that I'm off the rails after "such that ac=ab⋅k" anyone care to help me? please?
 
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Then (a - c⋅k) = 0 so k(a - b⋅k) = 0
Where did that come from?

ac=ab.k => c=b.k
 
I got a hint from the professor and it really threw me for a loop

--snip--
Then (�� - ��⋅�) = 0 so �(� - �⋅�)
--snip--

so, I was trying to make that form work.
 
ac-kab=0 therefore a(c-kb)=0. Since a≠0, c-kb=0 or b|c.
 
I tried to combine those 2 formulas but it didn't work. I tried using another case where there are 2 red balls and 2 blue balls only so when combining the formula I got ##\frac{(4-1)!}{2!2!}=\frac{3}{2}## which does not make sense. Is there any formula to calculate cyclic permutation of identical objects or I have to do it by listing all the possibilities? Thanks
Since ##px^9+q## is the factor, then ##x^9=\frac{-q}{p}## will be one of the roots. Let ##f(x)=27x^{18}+bx^9+70##, then: $$27\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)^2+b\left(\frac{-q}{p}\right)+70=0$$ $$b=27 \frac{q}{p}+70 \frac{p}{q}$$ $$b=\frac{27q^2+70p^2}{pq}$$ From this expression, it looks like there is no greatest value of ##b## because increasing the value of ##p## and ##q## will also increase the value of ##b##. How to find the greatest value of ##b##? Thanks
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