Proving Euler Lagrange equations

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    Euler Lagrange
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The discussion centers on deriving the Euler-Lagrange equations from the invariance of the action, specifically δ∫Ldt=0. A user seeks guidance on this deduction and shares a proof for a simple example, suggesting it can be generalized. Another participant mentions their focus on proving the equations for a covariant Lagrangian, noting a key difference in the formulation involving proper time. The conversation highlights the need for clarity in transitioning from standard to covariant formulations. Overall, the thread emphasizes the importance of understanding the foundational principles behind the Euler-Lagrange equations.
Frank Einstein
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Hi everybody; I am looking for the deduction of the euler lagrange equations (d/dt)(∂L/∂v)-(∂L/∂x) from the invariance of the action δ∫Ldt=0.
Can someone please tell me where can I find It?

Thanks for reading.
 
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julian said:
Here I gave the proof for a simple example, should be easy for you to generalize it. Can give additional points if you like.

https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/what-is-a-lagrangian.823652/#post-5177331
Thanks for the anwser; I was trying to prove this for a covariant lagrangian; the only differencie I spot with your proof is that I have to write √(1-(u/c)^2)dτ instead of dt.
 
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