Proving Exactness of a Differential Form with Poincaré's Lemma

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The discussion focuses on proving that the differential form ω is exact under the condition that the sum of the partial derivatives of the components of a differentiable function f equals zero. It is established that ω is an (n-1)-form and that Poincaré's lemma applies since f is defined on an open, star-shaped set, allowing the conclusion that every closed form is exact. To demonstrate that ω is closed, the expression for its exterior derivative dw is derived, leading to questions about simplifying this expression to show that dw equals zero. Clarifications are sought regarding the relationship between the condition on the partial derivatives and the closure of the form. Ultimately, the goal is to confirm that the differential form ω is indeed exact.
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let f: R^n \rightarrow R^n be differentiable, with \sum_{i=1}^n (-1)^i \frac{ \partial{f_i}}{\partial{x_i}} = 0. show that \omega = \sum_{i=1}^n f_i dx_1 \Lambda ... \Lambda \hat{dx_i}\Lambda ... \Lamda dx_n is exact


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here's what i got so far:

\omega is a n-1 form, since the "^" on the dx_i indicates that this term is omitted. f is defined on R^n which is an open, star-shaped set. because of this, we can use poincare's lemma, which states that on an open starshaped set, every closed form is exact. therefore we only need to show that \omega is closed. that is, dw = 0.

when i write out dw, i get

dw = \sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{\alpha = 1}^n \frac{ \partial{f_i}}{\partial{x_\alpha}} dx_\alpha \Lambda dx_1 \Lambda... \Lambda \hat{dx_i}\Lambda ... \Lamda dx_n

how do i simplify this? how do i make this equal zero? if \sum_{i=1}^n (-1)^i \frac{ \partial{f_i}}{\partial{x_i}} = 0, does this mean that the expression i wrote for dw equals zero? i don't really see the connection here, since \sum_{i=1}^n (-1)^i \frac{ \partial{f_i}}{\partial{x_i}} has an extra factor of (-1)^i...i'm not sure about the subscripts either. i hope someone can help me with this.
 
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jeanf said:
let f: R^n \rightarrow R^n be differentiable, with \sum_{i=1}^n (-1)^i \frac{ \partial{f_i}}{\partial{x_i}} = 0. show that \omega = \sum_{i=1}^n f_i dx_1 \Lambda ... \Lambda \hat{dx_i}\Lambda ... \Lamda dx_n

What is it you want to show? You can't show that \omega = \sum_{i=1}^n f_i dx_1 \Lambda ... \Lambda \hat{dx_i}\Lambda ... \Lamda dx_n without knowing how \omega is defined! You haven't said what \omega is. If, on the other hand, \omega = \sum_{i=1}^n f_i dx_1 \Lambda ... \Lambda \hat{dx_i}\Lambda ... \Lamda dx_n is the definition of \omega then I don't know what it is you want to show. You seem to be saying that you want to prove that \omega is exact.
 
yes, the question was to show that \omega is exact - sorry, i forgot to type that in my original post. i have edited it above. thanks.
 
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