Proving \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{p(n)}{e^n} = 0

  • Thread starter Thread starter Zhalfirin88
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Limit Proof
Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit \(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{p(n)}{e^n} = 0\), where \(p(n)\) is a polynomial with real coefficients. Participants are exploring various approaches to tackle this limit, particularly in the context of their coursework in analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using series and L'Hospital's rule, although some express concerns about the appropriateness of these methods given their current curriculum. There is a suggestion to analyze the behavior of the leading term of the polynomial relative to \(e^n\) as \(n\) approaches infinity.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants sharing insights on how to approach the limit. Some have proposed examining the largest term of the polynomial and its behavior as \(n\) increases. There is a recognition of the constraints imposed by their current understanding of analysis, particularly regarding the use of derivatives and definitions of exponential functions.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that they are not allowed to use certain methods, such as L'Hospital's rule, and that their proofs must adhere to the definitions of limits as taught in their analysis class. There is also mention of confusion regarding the use of derivatives in their discussions.

Zhalfirin88
Messages
137
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Prove \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{p(n)}{e^n} = 0 where p(x) = a_k x^k + ... + a_1 x + a_0 (with real coefficients a_i in \mathbb{R} )


The Attempt at a Solution



I thought about using series to try and prove this, but I couldn't get it to work out and I think there is an easier way.

\frac{p(n)}{e^n} = \frac{ \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_k n^k}{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n^k}{k!}} = \frac{ \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_k}{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}}
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Zhalfirin88 said:

Homework Statement



Prove \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty} \frac{p(n)}{e^n} = 0 where p(x) = a_k x^k + ... + a_1 x + a_0 (with real coefficients a_i in \mathbb{R} )


The Attempt at a Solution



I thought about using series to try and prove this, but I couldn't get it to work out and I think there is an easier way.

\frac{p(n)}{e^n} = \frac{ \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_k n^k}{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{n^k}{k!}} = \frac{ \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_k}{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{1}{k!}}

Replace n by a continuous variable x and use L'Hospital's rule.
 
I don't think I'm allowed to use L'Hospital's rule, we have not proven it in class yet.
 
Could you show that a_kn^k/e^n goes to 0 as n goes to infinity? Then each lower order term would go to 0, as well. What tests/methods are you allowed to use? Does this have to be strict \epsilon - \delta from the defimition of limit?
 
No we are proving things based on the definition of convergence, for instance, our proofs start off as "Let \epsilon > 0 be arbitrary, and choose N > ... such that for all n > N ... etc. We haven't done epsilon delta proofs yet.
 
Whoops! yes, \epsilon - N is what I meant. But anyway, could you show that a_kn^k/e^n goes to 0? For instance, could you do something like this:
Let a = sup \{|a_i| : 0 \leq i \leq k \} then a_kn^k/e^n \leq an^k/e^n and then show that an^k/e^n goes to 0? Then deduce that the lower order terms go to 0? Of course, you are going to have to take more care than I did because 1)you'll need to find an N and 2)you'll need to take care of the times when you have negative a_k's. Anyway, am I making sense?
 
Actually, since a_kn^k/e^n \leq an^k/e^n is the largest term of the polynomial, couldn't you just find a N that suits this expression? Because p(n)/e^n can be written as \frac{a_0}{e^n} + \frac{a_1 n}{e^n} + ... + \frac{a_k n^k}{e^n}, and since you choose n > N always, then the N that you pick for the largest term will be true for all terms, which will satisfy the definition, correct?
 
Correct; that's what I had in mind. Now, find that N. Is this an Analysis class? I had terrible trouble proving things like this because it is so freaking hard to know what you are allowed to use. For example, L'Hospital's is off the table, but what can you use? The obvious answer, at first, is that you can only use stuff that you have already learned in the analysis class but I'd be willing to bet you haven't defined e^x, yet, is this correct? Do you find this a confusing as I did?
 
Yes, an analysis class, but yeah it's a little awkward, especially since the professor used a derivative to prove some lemma or something, then goes and says "we shouldn't be using derivatives yet, but I'll use it anyways" :) And no we have not defined e^x yet, correct
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
17
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
33
Views
3K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
2K