Proving limit of trigonometric functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the limit of a trigonometric function as n approaches 0, specifically involving the expression (sin n cos n) divided by the nth root of an infinite series related to tan functions. The subject area includes limits, trigonometric identities, and series convergence.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to simplify the limit by recognizing the denominator as an infinite geometric series but struggles with the nth root. Some participants suggest looking into trigonometric identities and Euler's formula, while others question the validity of the problem itself.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring various approaches and questioning the assumptions behind the limit. Some guidance has been offered regarding trigonometric identities, but there is no consensus on the correctness of the limit or the methods to prove it.

Contextual Notes

There are constraints mentioned, such as the prohibition of L'Hôpital's rule and the context of a high school limit problem, which may influence the methods considered appropriate for solving the limit.

exraven
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Homework Statement


Prove:
lim (n→0) {(sin n cos n) / (ⁿ√(1 - tan² 2n + tan⁴ 2n - tan⁶ 2n + ...))} = 1

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution


The denominator is an infinite geometric series, using the sum formula of an infinite geometric series, I simplify the limit:
lim (n→0) {(sin n cos n) / (ⁿ√(1 - tan² 2n + tan⁴ 2n - tan⁶ 2n + ...))}
= lim (n→0) {(sin n cos n) / (ⁿ√(1 / (1 + tan² 2n)))}

After a few tries, i can't figure out what to do with the ⁿ√, rationalizing the denominator won't work because the ⁿ√ will stuck in the numerator. L'hopital is not allowed because this is a high school limit problem. Could anyone give me some hints to solve this ? Any help would be much appreciated.
 
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sorry for the late reply, i was struggling to solve the problem. It seems that trigonometric identities won't work, the closest one is using the euler's formula, the result is 0. It fail to prove the problem though, maybe it is a false problem after all.
 
Part of the problem is that the limit above doesn't equal 1. And the best way I can think of to do this is to find just what the infinite series converges to. Although I'm not sure if that's in the scope of the problem.
 

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