Proving x*delta' ~ -delta with Generalized Functions

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The discussion focuses on proving the identity x * (delta') ~ -delta, where delta is the Dirac delta function and delta' is its derivative. Participants emphasize the importance of using the definition of the derivative of a generalized function and integration by parts (IBP) to approach the proof. There is confusion regarding the correct application of IBP and the choice of functions for integration, leading to difficulties in achieving the desired result. One participant suggests using a Gaussian approximation for the delta function to simplify the problem, but there is uncertainty about the validity of this approach. Overall, the conversation highlights challenges in applying mathematical concepts related to generalized functions and integration techniques.
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hi
can anyone tell me how could one go about to prove
x* (delta)' ~ -delta

where delta is the dirac delta funtion of x.
~ approximately equal

delta' = first derivative of delta

i know this can be done by using the concept of GENERALISED FUNTIONS.
WHICH INVOLVES MUTLIPLYING THE LHS OF THE EQUATION WITH A GOOD FUNCTION and taking limits to infinity to get the RHS..
I tried but there is something wrong.
can anyone help me out?
 
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What is your definition of the derivative of a generalized function?

In the one I'm most familiar with, the definition of the derivative of a generalized function \varphi, its that it's the generalized function satisfying
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \varphi&#039;(x) f(x) \, dx<br /> =<br /> -\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} \varphi(x) f&#039;(x) \, dx<br />
for all test functions f.
 
yes, that is the correct defination.
 
So, your identity
x \delta&#039;(x) = -\delta(x)
is true if and only if
\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} x \delta&#039;(x) f(x) \, dx = <br /> \int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} (-\delta(x)) f(x) \, dx = -f(0)<br />
for all test functions f, right? So what did you get when you used the definition of derivative?
 
i expanded the LHS of your equation using PArts.
where u = x(delta') and v = f
and i got stuck.
i am still not able to trace the steps which you did to land on to the expression which you posted in the previous step.
 
Isn't one of the important points in doing integration by parts that you choose something to be du/dx, and the other part to be v? Setting u= somthing and v=something seems lke you're not sure how to integrate by parts.

There is clearly only one choice to make for du/dx...
 
i am still not able to trace the steps which you did to land on to the expression which you posted in the previous step.
I was simply restating what you needed to prove, not actually providing a proof.



I'm not sure what you're trying to do with IBP; if you were setting u = x \delta&#039;(x) and v = f(x), that would allow you to do something with
\int u \, dv = \int f&#039;(x) \delta&#039;(x) x \, dx
but it wouldn't help at all when the integrand is \delta&#039;(x) x f(x) \, dx.



Did you try applying the definition of the derivative of a generalized function?
(This is equivalent to formally doing integration by parts with a certain choice, but I find it easier to think about by treating it as a rule in of itself)
 
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yes i used the defination of the GF,
taking u = delta'*f'; v = x
and solving the integral gives me zero. something is going wrong..
 
i was wondering can i use the following defination for delta function
delta = n/(pi)^.5 *exp (-(n*x)^2)
having done this i can get my answer.
but i do not know if this is correct?
 
  • #10
Huh? There are no u's and v's in the definition I quoted...

I agree with matt's assessment, though; you seem to have forgotten integration by parts. If you want to use integration by parts here, I really think it would be worthwhile to reopen your calculus textbook and do some integration by parts exercises before proceeding with this problem.
 
  • #11
i am not sure what is going wrong here..
integral u(x)v(x) dx = u(x)integral v(x) - integral( (derivative u(x)) (integral v(x)) )
where u(x) = something and v(x) = somethign else.

but anyways, i solved my way through the problem, if only i can replace delta by the defination of gaussian functions delta= n/(pi)^.5 *exp (-(n*x)^2) where n--> infinity.
i get my result
 
  • #12
aphrodasic said:
i am not sure what is going wrong here..
integral u(x)v(x) dx = u(x)integral v(x) - integral( (derivative u(x)) (integral v(x)) )
where u(x) = something and v(x) = somethign else.
You use a different notation for IBP than I've ever seen. I'm used to:
\int u(x) v&#039;(x) \, dx = u(x) v(x) - \int u&#039;(x) v(x) \, dx
So your v is my v'.


Anyways, it's clear why your attempts at integration by parts isn't working: you have no idea what delta''(x) is, so it doesn't help to differentiate delta'(x).
 
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