Proving x ∉ (x,y)^n for any n ∈ N in F[x,y] Field

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Homework Statement


Consider ##F[x,y]##, where ##F## is some field. I've been working on a problem all day and I'm having trouble with this last step. I am trying to show that ##x \notin(x,y)^n## for any ##n \in \Bbb{N}##.

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The Attempt at a Solution



Note that ##(x,y)^n = [(x)+(y)]^n = \sum_{i=0}^n (x)^i y^{n-i}##. I tried working with this, but I couldn't get anywhere. I could really use a hint; I don't want to have this become a problem that takes two days...
 
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I don't get it. Why isn't ##x \in (x) \subseteq (x,y) = (x,y)^1## as I can write it ##x=x^1+0\,##?
What does it mean an element is not an ideal?
 
fresh_42 said:
I don't get it. Why isn't ##x \in (x) \subseteq (x,y) = (x,y)^1## as I can write it ##x=x^1+0\,##?
What does it mean an element is not an ideal?

Sorry, I forgot to mention to stipulate that ##n \ge 2##.
 
Then under the assumption ##x \in (x,y)^n## for an ##n>1## we can write ##x= \sum_{n_i+m_i > 1} f_ix^{n_i}y^{m_i} ## with ##f_i \in \mathbf{F}\; , \;f_i = 0## almost all. Now the substitution ##y=1## is a ring homomorphism and we get a representation ##x \in \mathbf{F}[x]##.
 
try showing all elements of (x,y)^n have degree ≥ n.
 
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