Proving XOR Commutativity: Sufficiency of Tautology

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Given that XOR is defined by ((X \wedge \neg Y) \vee (\neg X \wedge Y)), in order to prove that XOR is commutative is it sufficient to prove that
((X \wedge \neg Y) \vee (\neg X \wedge Y)) \supset ((Y \wedge \neg X) \vee (\neg Y \wedge X))
is a tautology?
 
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Think about what that says:

If (X xor Y), then (Y xor X).

Is that the same as X xor Y = Y xor X?

(no)

Now, in general you would leave the last step implicit, because it's fairly routine, but I imagine you're interested in full rigor.
 
OK, I'd like to retract that ridiculous statement before I get banned. :smile: :smile: :smile:

Maybe I'd better get some sleep... :zzz:
 
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