I have this doubt..quantization in momentum space using G(p) as the Fourier transform of the wave function was not common (at least when i studied Q. Physics) my doubt is, if we have that:(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

[tex] x |G(p)>=i \hbar \frac{ \partial G(p)}{\partial p} [/tex]

But..what would happen if we apply:

[tex] \dot x |G(p)> = ? [/tex] here the "dot" means time derivative...

[tex] G(p)= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx \psi (x) e^{i\omega t -ipx} [/tex]

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# Quantization on momentum space

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