Quantum Mechanics - Infinite Potential Well

TheBaker
Messages
18
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



A particle is trapped in an infinite potential well, with the infinite walls at ±a. At time t=0, the wavefunction of the particle is

\psi = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2a}}

between -a and a, and 0 otherwise.

Find the probability that the Energy of the particle is \frac{9 \bar{h}^2 \pi^2}{8ma^2}

Homework Equations



E_n = \frac{n^2\bar{h}^2\pi^2}{8ma}

\psi = A \cos{\frac{(2r+1) \pi x}{2a}} for |x| < a
\psi = 0 otherwise

The Attempt at a Solution



I've calculated the above equations, but I'm unsure how to get from them to the probability of the particle having a certain energy. This could be really simple and it's me just having a brain dead moment, but any help would be very much appreciated.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
btw there is also a sin solution with an argument (in your notation) 2r(pi)x/a

personally I prefer the notation n(pi)x/a n even

however the cos solution you wrote is the one you want with r=1, that 2r+1 thing is just a way of writing n so that n is always odd.

so just take the projection of psi at t=0 on your cos function and square the answer
 
The sin solution isn't valid because this well has even parity (i.e. it's symmetric).

How do I find A? Presumably I need to use the initial condition of Psi, but I found when doing that that A is x dependent, when it should be a constant.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top