Quantum mechanics: potential steps

In summary, the conversation is about a question related to the Schrodinger equation and wave functions in different regions. The poster is struggling with one part of the question and receives help from other members in the form of hints and suggestions. Eventually, it is determined that K1 and K3 must be equal based on the Schrodinger equation.
  • #1
Martin89
25
1

Homework Statement


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The Attempt at a Solution



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Hi All,

I'm having trouble answering part (f) of the above question. I have managed parts (d) and (e) fine but am not sure how to proceed with part (f). I am pretty sure that the amplitude of the reflected wave in region 1 will be zero but I don't know how to show it.

Thanks in advance for any help!
 

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  • #2
Your solutions to (d) and (e) look correct, except for one small detail--I can't tell if the right-hands side of your last equation is ##k_1 Te^{ik_1 L}## or ##k_2 Te^{ik_2 L}##. Obviously, one is correct and one is not. :)

If ##Lk_2 = n \pi##, then ##e^{iLk_2} = e^{-iLk_2} = \pm 1##. This should allow you to rewrite the boundary conditions at ##x = L## in a form that's easier to compare to the boundary conditions at ##x = 0##---in fact, you should be able to eliminate ##C## and ##D## from the equations involving ##A## and ##B## altogether (although ##T## will still be present). If you can get this far, it should be pretty clear what to do next. (Hint: your intuition is correct. ;))
 
  • #3
VKint said:
Your solutions to (d) and (e) look correct, except for one small detail--I can't tell if the right-hands side of your last equation is ##k_1 Te^{ik_1 L}## or ##k_2 Te^{ik_2 L}##. Obviously, one is correct and one is not. :)

If ##Lk_2 = n \pi##, then ##e^{iLk_2} = e^{-iLk_2} = \pm 1##. This should allow you to rewrite the boundary conditions at ##x = L## in a form that's easier to compare to the boundary conditions at ##x = 0##---in fact, you should be able to eliminate ##C## and ##D## from the equations involving ##A## and ##B## altogether (although ##T## will still be present). If you can get this far, it should be pretty clear what to do next. (Hint: your intuition is correct. ;))
20180527_233656.jpg


Thanks for the reply! I think I'm still missing something. Should k1 = k3 at x=0 or something?
 

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  • #4
Martin89 said:
View attachment 226253

Thanks for the reply! I think I'm still missing something. Should k1 = k3 at x=0 or something?
You have not yet imposed that the wave functions must satisfy Schrodinger's equation. Impose that in regions I and III, what does that tell you about k1 and k3? (note that the energy of the particle is fixed and is assigned the value E in the question)
 
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  • #5
nrqed said:
You have not yet imposed that the wave functions must satisfy Schrodinger's equation. Impose that in regions I and II, what does that tell you about k1 and k3? (note that the energy of the particle is fixed and is assigned the value E in the question)

I've done as you said but I'm not sure what it shows me. K1 and K2 are different due to the potential in region 2. Looking at the problem physically, the Schrodinger equation must be identical in regions 1 and 3, and therefore K1=K3. Is this a correct assumption?
 
  • #6
Martin89 said:
I've done as you said but I'm not sure what it shows me. K1 and K2 are different due to the potential in region 2. Looking at the problem physically, the Schrodinger equation must be identical in regions 1 and 3, and therefore K1=K3. Is this a correct assumption?
Well, it would be better to show things explicitly. What condition do you get when you plug in the wave function of region I into Schrodinger's equation?
 
  • #7
nrqed said:
Well, it would be better to show things explicitly. What condition do you get when you plug in the wave function of region I into Schrodinger's equation?
20180528_144838.jpg


That is the condition for K1. The expression for K3 should be identical right?
 

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  • #8
Martin89 said:
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That is the condition for K1. The expression for K3 should be identical right?

do the calculation...the answer will pop right out.
 
  • #9
Dr Transport said:
do the calculation...the answer will pop right out.

Ok so I've done the calculation and K1 does indeed equal K3. Thanks guys!
 

Related to Quantum mechanics: potential steps

1. What is "Quantum mechanics"?

Quantum mechanics is a branch of physics that studies the behavior and interactions of subatomic particles, such as atoms and photons, on a very small scale.

2. What are "potential steps" in quantum mechanics?

Potential steps refer to abrupt changes in the potential energy of a particle in a quantum system. These changes can occur when a particle encounters a barrier or boundary, causing it to behave differently.

3. How do potential steps affect the behavior of particles?

Potential steps can cause particles to reflect, transmit, or be trapped within a quantum system. This behavior is determined by the particle's energy and the height and width of the potential step.

4. What is the significance of potential steps in quantum mechanics?

Potential steps play a crucial role in understanding the behavior of particles in quantum systems. They can help explain phenomena such as tunneling, quantum confinement, and energy levels in atoms.

5. How do scientists study potential steps in quantum mechanics?

Scientists use mathematical models and experiments to study potential steps in quantum mechanics. These methods allow for the prediction and observation of the behavior of particles in different potential step scenarios.

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