Hi. I have some basic (naive, ignorant) questions regarding the empirical nature of quantum particles. That is, in what way(s) are quantum particles empirically verifiable? To better demonstrate my question, it might be easier to pose it as a hypothetical scenario. When I look at my finger with my 'naked eyes', I see a macroscopic object: my finger has a certain spatial location, shape, colour, etc. Now suppose I get hold of a futuristic microscope that enables me to examine macroscopic objects (such as my finger) at microscopic levels. I put my finger under the microscope, tweak the magnification knob, and am able to see some cells. These cells are concrete objects, in that they are directly (via the microscope) observable entities. I crank the magnification up again, and am able to see the nucleus of the cell, ribosomes, mitochondria, etc. Again, these parts of the cell are concrete objects, in that they are directly (via the microscope) observable entities. Now, if I focus the microscope on, say, the nucleus of the cell, and crank the magnification up, will I eventually be able to see atomic/subatomic particles? Again, the microscope is a hypothetical futuristic device that has infinite magnification. Is this last act of magnification utterly nonsensical? Are subatomic particles not concrete, directly observable (via microscopes) entities in the way cells/cell nuclei are? If not, in what way are atomic/subatomic particles observable? By inference? I mean here that yes they are actual entities, but only their effects are measurable (we can infer the particles existence due to certain effects it has, and these effects are observable/measurable)? Or are they abstract entities, in the way genes are abstract 'theoretical' entities? Cheers for any help.