this may be a dumb question but I haft to ask it , so if there are an infinite number of natural numbers 1 , 2 ,3 .... , and there are an infinite number of rational numbers in between 1 and 2 how can they both be infinite if I have more rational numbers than natural numbers . can we quantify infinities(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Question about numbers ?

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