Question on Automorphism group as subgroup

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The problem is as follows:-

Statement of the problem: Given group G, show that the automorphism group of G is a subgroup of the permutation group of G.

I can show that Auto(G) is a subset of Perm(G) easily. So I have to show that subgroup conditions hold: (1) for each x in Auto(G), x inverse is also in Auto(G), (2) the identity is in Auto(G), and (3) Auto(G) is closed under composition.

2&3 are very easy. For part 1, I have to show that given f(x)^-1, it is bijective and homomorphic. Showing that the inverse is bijective is easy. The only problem I have is showing that it's a homomorphism. I start with the following relation on the inverse:-

Relevant Equation:-
f(x)^-1 = f(x^-1)

Attempt at solution:-
So given x,y in G, f(xy)^-1 = f((xy)^-1) = f(y^-1 x^-1) = f(y^-1)f(x^-1) = f(y)^-1f(x)^-1.

But the multiplicands are reversed from what I want to show a homomorphism, namely:-
f(xy) = f(x)f(y).

any ideas? Am I missing another obvious way to approach this?
 
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NeoInTheMatrix said:
f^-1 (x) = f(x^-1)

Why do you think this relation is true? It's not what the definition of f-1 tells you...
 
micromass said:
Why do you think this relation is true? It's not what the definition of f-1 tells you...

f is a homomorphism since it is part of the automorphism group of G. So therefore:-

e' = f(e) = f(x x^-1) = f(x)f(x^-1) .. where e' is the identity in the image of f. But this means that f(x^-1) is f^-1(x) since we can also have e' = f(x^-1 x) = f(x^-1)f(x) by similar logic.
 
No, this only shows that f(x^{-1})=f(x)^{-1}. The definition of f^{-1} is something completely different and has nothing to do with inverses in G.
The inverse is defined to satisfy f(f^{-1}(x))=x=f^{-1}(f(x)).
 
micromass said:
No, this only shows that f(x^{-1})=f(x)^{-1}. The definition of f^{-1} is something completely different and has nothing to do with inverses in G.
The inverse is defined to satisfy f(f^{-1}(x))=x=f^{-1}(f(x)).

I'll edit the question to move the -1 to the outside. I've never heard of f^-1 as something different from the inverse.
 
In this case f is a group element, so f^{-1} needs to be the element that takes f to the identity automorphism. You're considering how the homomorphism maps inverse elements, rather than the inverse homomorphism.
 
NeoInTheMatrix said:
I'll edit the question to move the -1 to the outside. I've never heard of f^-1 as something different from the inverse.

But f^-1 IS the inverse of f. But what does inverse mean? In this case, it means that f\circ f^{-1}=id_G=f^{-1}\circ f. This is the definition of the inverse.

So f-1(x) and f(x)-1 have completely different meanings:
f-1(x) is the element in G such that f(f-1(x))=x, while f(x)-1 is the element in G such that f(x)f-1(x)=e. These are two different notions...
 
Kreizhn said:
In this case f is a group element, so f^{-1} needs to be the element that takes f to the identity automorphism. You're considering how the homomorphism maps inverse elements, rather than the inverse homomorphism.

Now it makes sense. Thanks.
 
With that misunderstanding cleared up, the proof seems pretty straightforward:-

Consider f in Auto(G). f is surjective and injective as well as homomorphic. The inverse f^-1 is surjective as well. Given any x in G, x = f^-1(f(x)) such that x is in the image of f^-1 since the image of f(x) is G.

The inverse f^-1 is injective as well since the kernel is simply {e}. Since f is onto, every y in the image of f^-1 can be written as y = f^-1(f(y)). But f^-1(f(y)) = e only for y = e and hence only for f(y) = e. So the kernel of f^-1 is only e.

f^-1 is homomorphic. Since f is onto, every value y = f(x) for some x in g. So every value in the image of f^-1 can be written in the form f^-1(f(x)). Therefore

f^-1(f(xy)) = f^-1(f(x)f(y)) = xy = f^-1(f(x)) f^-1(f(y)) using f^-1(f(x)) = x on each part.

Given the surjectiveness of f, we can rewrite the variables as f(x) = a, f(y) = b for arbitrary a,b in G, to reduce it to the form:-

f^-1(ab) = f^-1(a)f^-1(b).
 
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