Question on Rudin Theorem 3.44 Inequality

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I have a question about the last inequality Rudin uses in his proof of this theorem. Given that |z| < 1 he gets the inequality

|(1-z^(m+1)) / (1-z)| <= 2 / (1-z)

I think he is using the fact that |z| = 1, so

|(1-z^(m+1)) / (1-z)| <= (1 + |z^(m+1)|) / |1-z|

So i am guessing that

|z^(m+1)| < 1 since |z| < 1

But I don't know why this would be true?
 
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jecharla said:
I have a question about the last inequality Rudin uses in his proof of this theorem. Given that |z| < 1 he gets the inequality

|(1-z^(m+1)) / (1-z)| <= 2 / (1-z)

I think he is using the fact that |z| = 1, so

|(1-z^(m+1)) / (1-z)| <= (1 + |z^(m+1)|) / |1-z|

So i am guessing that

|z^(m+1)| < 1 since |z| < 1

But I don't know why this would be true?


Please, do USE Latex to write mathematics in this site!

\left|\frac{1-z^{m+1}}{1-z}\right|\leq \frac{|1|+|z|^{m+1}}{|1-z|}\leq\frac{1+1}{|1-z|}= \frac{2}{|1-z|}

DonAntonio

Ps. Of course, \,|z|&lt;1\Longrightarrow |z|^k&lt;1\,\,\,\forall\,k\in\Bbb N
 
A sphere as topological manifold can be defined by gluing together the boundary of two disk. Basically one starts assigning each disk the subspace topology from ##\mathbb R^2## and then taking the quotient topology obtained by gluing their boundaries. Starting from the above definition of 2-sphere as topological manifold, shows that it is homeomorphic to the "embedded" sphere understood as subset of ##\mathbb R^3## in the subspace topology.

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