bomba923
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Do you agree that, \forall k \in \left[ {a,b} \right]\;{\text{where}}\;\left( {a,b,k} \right) \in \mathbb{Q}^3,
\exists \,\varepsilon > 0{\text{ such that}}\;\forall n \in \mathbb{N},\;\left( {\left\{ {k_1 ,k_2 , \ldots ,k_n } \right\} - a} \right) \subseteq \varepsilon \left\{ {0,1,2, \ldots ,\left\lfloor {\frac{{b - a}}{\varepsilon }} \right\rfloor } \right\}
|*Is this True or False ?
\exists \,\varepsilon > 0{\text{ such that}}\;\forall n \in \mathbb{N},\;\left( {\left\{ {k_1 ,k_2 , \ldots ,k_n } \right\} - a} \right) \subseteq \varepsilon \left\{ {0,1,2, \ldots ,\left\lfloor {\frac{{b - a}}{\varepsilon }} \right\rfloor } \right\}
|*Is this True or False ?
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