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Quick Question

  1. Nov 1, 2006 #1
    If n and m are integers and L is a positive number, does this equal zero?

    [tex]\frac{sin(\frac{n\pi}{L}-\frac{m\pi}{L})}{\frac{n\pi}{L}-\frac{m\pi}{L}}-\frac{sin(\frac{n\pi}{L}+\frac{m\pi}{L})}{\frac{n\pi}{L}+\frac{m\pi}{L}}[/tex]
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Nov 1, 2006 #2

    quasar987

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    if m=n, this expression is not defined because the first denominator is 0.

    Otherwise, it depends on what L, m and n are.

    If you want to know if your equation is valid for any n,m, L whatever, try a numerical counter-exemple: plug say L=1.3, m=1, n=4.
     
    Last edited: Nov 1, 2006
  4. Nov 1, 2006 #3
    Since sin(n*Pi) = 0 only when n is an integer, in my previous case, it depends on the value of L, correct?
     
  5. Nov 1, 2006 #4
    Thanks. That's what I was afraid of. I am actually trying to show that a certain wave function is properly normalized and needed this to be 0 to have the correct answer. I'll move this discussion over to the physics subforum.
     
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