- #1
robousy
- 334
- 1
Hey there,
can someone give me a nice explanation as to why (div)B = 0 implies there are no magnetic monopoles?
If you could explain mathematically and or intuitively I'd be really grateful as I've 'known' this fact for years, but never really understood.
can someone give me a nice explanation as to why (div)B = 0 implies there are no magnetic monopoles?
If you could explain mathematically and or intuitively I'd be really grateful as I've 'known' this fact for years, but never really understood.