MHB Quotient Rings .... Remarks by Adkins and Weintraub ....

  • Thread starter Thread starter Math Amateur
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    quotient Rings
Math Amateur
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
3,920
Reaction score
48
I am reading "Algebra: An Approach via Module Theory" by William A. Adkins and Steven H. Weintraub ...

I am currently focused on Chapter 2: Rings ...

I need help with fully understanding some remarks by Adkins and Weintraub on quotient rings on page 59 in Chapter 2 ...

The remarks by Adkins and Weintraub on quotient rings read as follows:
View attachment 7948
In the above text from A&W we read the following:

" ... ... All that needs to be checked is that this definition is independent of the choice of coset representatives. To see this suppose $$r + I = r' + I$$ and $$s + I = s' + I$$. Then $$r' = r + a$$ and $$s' = s + b$$ where $$a,b \in I$$. ... ... ... "Can someone please (fully) explain how/why it is that $$r + I = r' + I$$ and $$s + I = s' + I$$ imply that $$r' = r + a$$ and $$s' = s + b$$ where $$a,b \in I$$ ... ... ?
Help will be appreciated ...

Peter
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Hi, Peter.

Peter said:
Can someone please (fully) explain how/why it is that $$r + I = r' + I$$ and $$s + I = s' + I$$ imply that $$r' = r + a$$ and $$s' = s + b$$ where $$a,b \in I$$ ... ... ?

Here is one possible argument:

By definition, $r + I = \{r+a: a\in I\}$ and $r' + I = \{r'+a: a\in I\}.$ Now, $r'\in r' + I$ because $0\in I$. Since $r'\in r'+I=r+I=\{r+a: a\in I\},$ $r'=r+a$ for some $a\in I$.
 
GJA said:
Hi, Peter.
Here is one possible argument:

By definition, $r + I = \{r+a: a\in I\}$ and $r' + I = \{r'+a: a\in I\}.$ Now, $r'\in r' + I$ because $0\in I$. Since $r'\in r'+I=r+I=\{r+a: a\in I\},$ $r'=r+a$ for some $a\in I$.
Well! Thanks! Really clear ...

Appreciate your help GJA ...

Peter
 
Thread 'How to define a vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
750
Replies
5
Views
959
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
814
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
892