Re-evolution of wavefunction after collapse

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How much time does it take for wavefunction to start re-evolution after its observation is over? Or how does it evolve?
I think, considering feynman path formulation, it should start evolving instantaneously, with wavefunction ending at edge of light cone (light cone that has its tip at the point of collapse). Its like wavefunction fills this light cone.
 
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01030312 said:
How much time does it take for wavefunction to start re-evolution after its observation is over? Or how does it evolve?
I think, considering feynman path formulation, it should start evolving instantaneously, with wavefunction ending at edge of light cone (light cone that has its tip at the point of collapse). Its like wavefunction fills this light cone.

The collapse of a wavefunction means its annihilation. It's not 'resurrected' after an observation; what evolves is the wavefunction of a different system.
 
Consider a position wave-function. After observation, i think, it does not annihilate, but changes to a dirac-delta function. Once observation has been removed, the unitary evolution takes place again. The phenomena of reduction itself was a part of evolution, though non-unitary.
 
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
If we release an electron around a positively charged sphere, the initial state of electron is a linear combination of Hydrogen-like states. According to quantum mechanics, evolution of time would not change this initial state because the potential is time independent. However, classically we expect the electron to collide with the sphere. So, it seems that the quantum and classics predict different behaviours!
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