Real/complex differentiable function

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Homework Statement



Is the following function real and complex-differentiable everywhere?

f(z) = Re(z)

Homework Equations



Cauchy-Riemann equations fy = ifx

The Attempt at a Solution



Let z = x + iy, z1 = x - iy

Re(z) can be defined by Re(z) = (z + z1)/2

A function is ℝ-differentiable if
f(z+Δz) - f(z) = fx(z)Δx + fy(z)Δy + Ω(Δz)
and
Ω(Δz)/Δz -> 0 as Δz -> 0.

Δz = Δx + iΔy


So, f(z+Δz) = (z + Δz + (z + Δz)1)/2
= x + Δx

So f(z+Δz) - f(z) = Δx

fx(z)Δx = ∂f/∂x (Δx) = ∂x/∂x (Δx) = (Δx)
fy(z)Δy = 0

f(z+Δz) - f(z) = fx(z)Δx + fy(z)Δx + Ω(Δz)
So Δx = Δx + Ω(Δz)
Thus Ω(Δz) = 0 and evidently 0/Δz -> 0 as Δz -> 0.

So f(z) is ℝ-differentiable everywhere.


I know from a theorem that if f is ℝ-differentiable and satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations then it is ℂ-differentiable.


fy = ifx

fy = 0
ifx = i

So f does not satisfy the equations, hence not ℂ-differentiable.


Is this correct?
 
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You've shown that Re(z)y ≠ iRe(z)x. The Cauchy-Riemann condition is fy = ifx. What's the logical conclusion? ;o)
 
obafgkmrns said:
You've shown that Re(z)y ≠ iRe(z)x. The Cauchy-Riemann condition is fy = ifx. What's the logical conclusion? ;o)

I'm sorry? What do you mean?

f(z) is Re(z).
 
His point is that Re(z) does NOT satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations.
 
So f is not complex differenctiable?
 
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