Really confused - basic special relativity

In summary: And what I know is that if an object is to travel in the speed of light, it would have to "experience" time as stopped, and distance as zero. That means that actually the photon experiences the whole universe (if it had feelings) at once, right? That, although perhaps not a scientific, is at least a logical consequence of other observations (and therefore not contradicting them).In summary, the conversation discusses the concepts of time dilation and space contraction in relation to a person traveling at a high speed to a distant star. The speaker is having trouble understanding how these two effects cancel out or add up, and also poses
  • #36
Not here.
 
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  • #37
DaleSpam said:
Not here.

Show me if you will where it's written, and try not to confuse your preferences with rules. There's nothing wrong in seeking the point of view of scientists on subjects related to philosophy and I can't think of a more appropriate place to have a discussion on it. I wasn't asking about gender studies or Karl Marx, I was asking about the possibility of the existence of a photon's rest frame. That it diverges one micro step from the almighty model doesn't mean it's meaningless/dumb/forbidden to discuss it, and if it doesn't belong to this forum, where does it belong to?
Especially if the question I posed could maybe be answered physically. The borders between the two are pretty shady as it is.

Please stop this witch hunting, it's ridiculous and insulting. I would much prefer it if you simply don't answer me if you find my questions so irrelevant. If moderators demand, I'll stop asking questions here, but I'll find it very sad.

Physics:
About the inertial frames - I was referring to the classic "not-accelerated" inertial frame. Of course the "inertial frame moving with velocity c" would have to have the exception that the speed of light there isn't c, otherwise I agree it's a conflict.

My next question is therefore: (Physics:)
Does it create some sort of paradoxes, assuming that the speed of light at a photon's "rest frame" isn't c?
 
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  • #39
Tomer said:
I was asking about the possibility of the existence of a photon's rest frame.
And you were answered, very clearly.

Tomer said:
About the inertial frames - I was referring to the classic "not-accelerated" inertial frame. Of course the "inertial frame moving with velocity c" would have to have the exception that the speed of light there isn't c
Then it isn't an inertial frame, by definition. That is the core of the self contradiction inherent in the question.

Repetition and becoming irritated with the responses is not going to change a self contradictory premise into a self consistent one.
 
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  • #40
Tomer said:
Physics:
About the inertial frames - I was referring to the classic "not-accelerated" inertial frame. Of course the "inertial frame moving with velocity c" would have to have the exception that the speed of light there isn't c, otherwise I agree it's a conflict.

My next question is therefore: (Physics:)
Does it create some sort of paradoxes, assuming that the speed of light at a photon's "rest frame" isn't c?

It doesn't really work like this. There is no way to measure the speed of light (in vacuum) to be anything other than c. That's one of the postulates of relativity.

There is no conflict. Imagine you see a photon and you want to try to measure its speed from its frame of reference. You would try to accelerate to catch up to it, but no matter how much you accelerated, it would keep moving away from you at c.
 
  • #41
*sigh*. Ok. :-)
 
  • #42
BruceW said:
Why not? Between two events on a null geodesic, the space separation equals the time separation (with c=1).

When you impose an indeterminate riemannian metric on a manifold, this makes it semi - riemannian in nature. This structure is what, to an extent, leads to null geodesics having zero length on intervals. This does not warrant you the ability to lorentz boost to the frame of a photon and justify that time is not passing at all for it. The statement has no meaning whatsoever.
 
  • #43
WannabeNewton said:
When you impose an indeterminate riemannian metric on a manifold, this makes it semi - riemannian in nature. This structure is what, to an extent, leads to null geodesics having zero length on intervals. This does not warrant you the ability to lorentz boost to the frame of a photon and justify that time is not passing at all for it. The statement has no meaning whatsoever.

I'm not trying to justify anything by using a Lorentz boost. I didn't mention Lorentz boosting.

Once we define a time axis, there are three types of null vector: the zero vector, the future directed null and the past directed null. So the type of null vector depends on the direction we specify for the time axis. So for the path of a photon, we could define the time axis such that its 4-velocity was given by the zero vector (0,0,0,0).

Is there anything wrong with doing this?
 
  • #44
BruceW said:
I'm not trying to justify anything by using a Lorentz boost. I didn't mention Lorentz boosting.

Once we define a time axis, there are three types of null vector: the zero vector, the future directed null and the past directed null. So the type of null vector depends on the direction we specify for the time axis. So for the path of a photon, we could define the time axis such that its 4-velocity was given by the zero vector (0,0,0,0).

Is there anything wrong with doing this?

Well a photon has no defined 4 - velocity. [itex]d\tau ^{2} = 0[/itex] so [itex]\frac{dx^{\mu }}{d\tau }[/itex] is not defined. I assume you meant the photon's wave 4 - vector [itex]k^{\mu }[/itex]. For either future null directed or past null directed, [itex]k^{\mu }k_{\mu } = 0[/itex] but this is, again, a consequence of the nature of a semi - riemannian manifold. It does not mean that time literally does not pass for a photon because you are not making a tangible physical statement about photons.
 
  • #45
BruceW said:
So for the path of a photon, we could define the time axis such that its 4-velocity was given by the zero vector (0,0,0,0).

Is there anything wrong with doing this?
I don't think that is true. I don't think that the choice of time axis can change two topologically distinct events into topologically indistinguishable events. The topology is more fundamental than the coordinate basis.
 

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