Regarding functions how can simplifying a function change it's domain

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Simplifying a function can change its domain, as demonstrated with the example f(x) = (x^2 - 1)/(x + 1), which simplifies to g(x) = x - 1, but is not defined at x = -1. The functions f and g are equivalent except at this point, where f has a hole. It is crucial to recognize that algebraic manipulations must be accompanied by careful consideration of their implications, particularly regarding division by zero. Common pitfalls include overlooking restrictions that arise from simplifications, such as undefined values. Developing a critical approach to mathematical expressions helps in identifying these issues over time.
Marmoteer
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for example
if f(x) = \frac{x^{2} - 1}{x+1}

they by factoring:

f(x) = \frac{x^{2} - 1}{x+1}<br /> = \frac{(x + 1)(x - 1)}{x+1} <br /> = x - 1

thus the simplified version is x - 1

let's say g(x) = simplified f(x)

g(x) = x - 1

meaning g(x) = f(x)

but

g(-1) ≠ f(-1)

am I missing something?
 
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##f(x) = \frac {x^2-1}{x+1}##
##f(0) = \frac {0^2-1}{0+1}##
##f(0) = -1##

##g(x) = x-1##
##g(0) = 0-1##
##g(0) =-1##
The two functions act the same except at x = -1 at which ##f(x)## has a hole at -1.
 
Oops Sorry I meant to write g(-1) ≠ f(-1)
 
how can simplifying a function change it's domain

Symbolic manipulations in math are an abbreviation for thought, not a substitute for it. If you "simplify" an expression without thinking about it, you can make a faulty deduction. The correct deduction is

\frac{(x+1) (x-1)}{x+1} = x-1 except when x = -1.

There may be types of math where you only manipulate symbols and never use ordinary language, but algebra is not one of them.
 
Marmoteer said:
for example
if f(x) = \frac{x^{2} - 1}{x+1}

they by factoring:

f(x) = \frac{x^{2} - 1}{x+1}<br /> = \frac{(x + 1)(x - 1)}{x+1} <br /> = x - 1

thus the simplified version is x - 1

let's say g(x) = simplified f(x)

g(x) = x - 1

meaning g(x) = f(x)
What you are "missing" is that this is not true. What is true is that f(x)= g(x) for all x except x= -1. f and g are NOT the same function.

but

g(-1) ≠ f(-1)

am I missing something?
 
Stephen Tashi said:
Symbolic manipulations in math are an abbreviation for thought, not a substitute for it. If you "simplify" an expression without thinking about it, you can make a faulty deduction. The correct deduction is

\frac{(x+1) (x-1)}{x+1} = x-1 except when x = -1.

There may be types of math where you only manipulate symbols and never use ordinary language, but algebra is not one of them.

Is there an easy way to spot a problem like this, or is it something you just get better at over time?
 
You should have learned long ago that you cannot divide by 0 so that the division in
\frac{(x- 1)(x+1)}{x+1}= x- 1
is only valid when x+ 1\ne 0 which is only true when x\ne -1.
 
mesa said:
Is there an easy way to spot a problem like this, or is it something you just get better at over time?

There are common traps, like expessions that "don't work" for some values of variables because they involve division by zero or square roots of negative numbers etc.

You'll get better at spotting the common traps over time if you become suspicious of any form of calculation. Don't trust. Don't believe.
 
Stephen Tashi said:
There are common traps, like expessions that "don't work" for some values of variables because they involve division by zero or square roots of negative numbers etc.

You'll get better at spotting the common traps over time if you become suspicious of any form of calculation. Don't trust. Don't believe.

The dividing by zero makes a lot of sense, I was surprised to see it still apllied even when the numerator would also equal 0 hence 0/0. I will certainly be mindful of this and irrational numbers in the future, thanks for the tip!
 
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