Relation between Impulse and Conservation of Momentum

AI Thread Summary
The discussion centers on the relationship between the Impulse-Momentum Theorem and the Law of Conservation of Momentum, highlighting confusion over reconciling their concepts and units. The Impulse-Momentum Theorem is viewed as an integral form of Newton's Second Law, while Newton's Third Law ensures that forces between colliding objects are equal and opposite, leading to zero change in total momentum. The original poster seeks clarity on how these ideas connect, particularly regarding the differences in units between impulse and momentum change. Recommendations for more theoretical resources on classical mechanics are also requested, with interest in Spivak's "Physics for Mathematicians." Overall, the conversation emphasizes the need for a deeper understanding of the theoretical foundations of these principles.
jstad
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
First post here. This question has two parts. (1) Connecting the dots between the Impulse-Momentum Theorem and the Law of Conservation of Momentum and (2) Book recommendations for a more theoretical treatment of classical mechanics?

(1) Difficulty reconciling the Impulse-Momentum Theorem with the Law of Conservation of Momentum.

Am I over-thinking this concept? Is it really just that the Impulse-Momentum Theorem shows that Newton's 3rd law holds in a closed system and that when objects interact (e.g., collide), the change in their momentum is Fnet = 0?

I suppose my difficulty is that instantaneous change in momentum, dP/dt ≠ ∫F(t)dt. Instead, ∫F(t) = ΔP. ∫F(t)dt produces kg m/s while dP/dt gives us kg m/s2.

Therefore, the area underneath the Force/Time curve simply gives us the change in momentum, while the Law of Conservation of Momentum uses the derivative (instantaneous change in momentum) to show that internal forces cancel out in a closed system and thus momentum is conserved.

I am confused on how one makes the leap from the Impulse-Momentum Theorem to the Law of Conservation on Momentum. It seems to me that the Law Of Conservation of Momentum should be based on the idea of Impulse, yet the units don't add up (Impulse = N s; dP/dt = N). It seems that implicit in the Impulse is the idea that momentum is conserved, i.e., Pi = Pf. But again, the units don't add up between the two concepts. How do these two ideas relate/reconcile with one another?

(2) I am working out of Knight's "Physics: For Scientists and Engineers, 3rd Edition," pp. 221 - 229. I'm pretty sure the theoretical side of the calculus is my problem. Yet this book does nothing to connect the dots. I think it's more designed for the plug and chug world of engineering. With that said, are there any books that provide a more theoretical, yet accessible side to classical mechanics? Has anyone worked through Spivak's "Physics for Mathematicians"? That title seemed appealing to me.

Thank you in advance!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
I think of the impulse-momentum theorem as being basically Newton's Second Law, expressed in integral form. Newton's Third Law is separate. You need both of them to get conservation of total momentum.

Consider two colliding objects. During the collision, object 1 exerts force ##\vec F_{12}(t)## on object 2. Object 2 exerts force ##\vec F_{21}(t)## on object 1.

According to the impulse-momentum theorem (Newton's Second Law), objects 1 and 2 change momentum by
$$\Delta \vec p_1 = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} {\vec F_{21}(t) dt}\\
\Delta \vec p_2 = \int_{t_1}^{t_2} {\vec F_{12}(t) dt}$$

According to Newton's Third Law, ##\vec F_{21}(t) = - \vec F_{12}(t)##. It follows from the above that ##\Delta \vec p_1 = - \Delta \vec p_2##.

Therefore the change in total momentum is ##\Delta \vec p = \Delta \vec p_1 + \Delta \vec p_2 = 0##.
 
Thank you for your reply. This is completely intuitive and clear to me. I think my book may have introduced dP/dt so as to directly relate Conservation of Momentum to Newton's 2nd Law (the F = ma incarnation). I will post if I have any further questions but thank you again for clearing this up. The way the book presented this was very anti-intuitive to me.
 
The rope is tied into the person (the load of 200 pounds) and the rope goes up from the person to a fixed pulley and back down to his hands. He hauls the rope to suspend himself in the air. What is the mechanical advantage of the system? The person will indeed only have to lift half of his body weight (roughly 100 pounds) because he now lessened the load by that same amount. This APPEARS to be a 2:1 because he can hold himself with half the force, but my question is: is that mechanical...
Some physics textbook writer told me that Newton's first law applies only on bodies that feel no interactions at all. He said that if a body is on rest or moves in constant velocity, there is no external force acting on it. But I have heard another form of the law that says the net force acting on a body must be zero. This means there is interactions involved after all. So which one is correct?
Thread 'Beam on an inclined plane'
Hello! I have a question regarding a beam on an inclined plane. I was considering a beam resting on two supports attached to an inclined plane. I was almost sure that the lower support must be more loaded. My imagination about this problem is shown in the picture below. Here is how I wrote the condition of equilibrium forces: $$ \begin{cases} F_{g\parallel}=F_{t1}+F_{t2}, \\ F_{g\perp}=F_{r1}+F_{r2} \end{cases}. $$ On the other hand...
Back
Top