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Relation between symmetry, charges and one-particle states

  1. Mar 5, 2007 #1
    Hi,
    I recently saw an author make the following statement:
    If the symmetry leaves the 1-particle states invariant then its associated charge Q acts on the 1-particle states |p> such that Q|p> = 0
    This statement is nontrivial to me, so if anybody could show me how it works please let me know.
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Mar 6, 2007 #2
    Figured this out myself already, so no reply needed.
     
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