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## Main Question or Discussion Point

Hi,

I recently saw an author make the following statement:

If the symmetry leaves the 1-particle states invariant then its associated charge Q acts on the 1-particle states |p> such that Q|p> = 0

This statement is nontrivial to me, so if anybody could show me how it works please let me know.

I recently saw an author make the following statement:

If the symmetry leaves the 1-particle states invariant then its associated charge Q acts on the 1-particle states |p> such that Q|p> = 0

This statement is nontrivial to me, so if anybody could show me how it works please let me know.