Representation of Angular Momentum Operator in the (j,j')

a2009
Messages
22
Reaction score
0
Hello All,

I'm trying to understand how the (j,j') representation of the Lorentz group. Following Ryder, I can see why we define A=J+iK and B=J-iK, which each form an SU(2) group. So it's clear to me what the rep of these generators is when acting on a state (j,j'): Rep(A)\otimes1+1\otimes Rep(B). Where Rep(A) and Rep(B) are the appropriate j and j' reps.

My question is this: given the rep (j,j')\oplus(j',j), what is the induced rep on the generators? For example how do I act with A or J on this state?

Thanks a whole bunch
 
Physics news on Phys.org
If you have a representation r and associated generators R, then the generators for the representation r\oplus r' are

\begin{pmatrix} R & 0 \\ 0& R'\end{pmatrix}.

As a sort of converse, if a representation \tilde{r} is reducible to a sum r\oplus r', then the generators \tilde{R} are block diagonal, as above.
 
Thanks for the quick reply. But I didn't understand. In the (1/2,1)\oplus(1,1/2) of Lorentz, does the operator A (the left SU(2)) look like this

<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> A_{2\times2} &amp; 0 &amp; 0 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; 1_{3\times3} &amp; 0 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; 0 &amp; A_{3\times3} &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; 0 &amp; 0 &amp; 1_{2\times2} <br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />
 
a2009 said:
Thanks for the quick reply. But I didn't understand. In the (1/2,1)\oplus(1,1/2) of Lorentz, does the operator A (the left SU(2)) look like this

<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> A_{2\times2} &amp; 0 &amp; 0 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; 1_{3\times3} &amp; 0 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; 0 &amp; A_{3\times3} &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; 0 &amp; 0 &amp; 1_{2\times2} <br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

No, there's separate blocks for the right and left-generators. The block decomposition is only for the sums, not the tensor products. So you'd have

<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> A_{2\times2} &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; A_{3\times3} <br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />
 
Sorry I still don't understand. Each (j,j') is a (2j+1)X(2j'+1) dimensional vector space. So in the case of (1/2,1)\oplus(1,1/2) it should be a twelve dimensional vector space. What you wrote is five dimensional. Maybe the answer is A_{2\times2}\otimes 1_{3\times3} \oplus A_{3\times3}\otimes 1_{2\times2}? This would give

\begin{pmatrix}<br /> \left( A_{2\times2}\otimes 1_{3\times3} \right)_{6\times 6} &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; \left( A_{3\times3}\otimes 1_{2\times2} \right)_{6\times 6}<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

which is a twelve dim operator like I'd expect. Does this make any sense?

Thank!
 
a2009 said:
Sorry I still don't understand. Each (j,j') is a (2j+1)X(2j'+1) dimensional vector space. So in the case of (1/2,1)\oplus(1,1/2) it should be a twelve dimensional vector space. What you wrote is five dimensional. Maybe the answer is A_{2\times2}\otimes 1_{3\times3} \oplus A_{3\times3}\otimes 1_{2\times2}? This would give

\begin{pmatrix}<br /> \left( A_{2\times2}\otimes 1_{3\times3} \right)_{6\times 6} &amp; 0 \\<br /> 0 &amp; \left( A_{3\times3}\otimes 1_{2\times2} \right)_{6\times 6}<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

which is a twelve dim operator like I'd expect. Does this make any sense?

Thank!

This is right.
 
Not an expert in QM. AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is quite different from the classical wave equation. The former is an equation for the dynamics of the state of a (quantum?) system, the latter is an equation for the dynamics of a (classical) degree of freedom. As a matter of fact, Schrödinger's equation is first order in time derivatives, while the classical wave equation is second order. But, AFAIK, Schrödinger's equation is a wave equation; only its interpretation makes it non-classical...
Insights auto threads is broken atm, so I'm manually creating these for new Insight articles. Towards the end of the first lecture for the Qiskit Global Summer School 2025, Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, Olivia Lanes (Global Lead, Content and Education IBM) stated... Source: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/quantum-entanglement-is-a-kinematic-fact-not-a-dynamical-effect/ by @RUTA
Is it possible, and fruitful, to use certain conceptual and technical tools from effective field theory (coarse-graining/integrating-out, power-counting, matching, RG) to think about the relationship between the fundamental (quantum) and the emergent (classical), both to account for the quasi-autonomy of the classical level and to quantify residual quantum corrections? By “emergent,” I mean the following: after integrating out fast/irrelevant quantum degrees of freedom (high-energy modes...

Similar threads

Back
Top