Rings of Fractions .... Lovett, Section 6.2 ....

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The discussion centers on Section 6.2 of Stephen Lovett's "Abstract Algebra: Structures and Applications," specifically regarding the construction of rings of fractions. It is established that if the set of denominators is taken as the positive integers, denoted as $$D = { \mathbb{Z} }^{ \gt 0 }$$, the resulting ring of fractions is isomorphic to the rational numbers $$\mathbb{Q}$$. The identity map from the ring with positive denominators, referred to as $$Q_1$$, to $$\mathbb{Q}$$ serves as a valid isomorphism, as every rational number can be expressed with a positive denominator by adjusting negative denominators accordingly.

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I am reading Stephen Lovett's book, "Abstract Algebra: Structures and Applications" and am currently focused on Section 6.2: Rings of Fractions ...

I need some help with some remarks following Definition 6.2.4 ... ... ...

The remarks following Definition 6.2.4 reads as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/6461In the above text from Lovett we read the following:

" ... ... it is not hard to show that if we had taken $$D = { \mathbb{Z} }^{ \gt 0 }$$ we would get a ring of fractions that is that is isomorphic to $$\mathbb{Q}$$. ... ... "Can someone please help me to understand this statement ... how is such an isomorphism possible ... in particular, how does one achieve a one-to-one and onto homomorphism from the positive integers to the negative elements of $$\mathbb{Q}$$ as well as the positive elements ...

Hope someone can help ... ...

Peter=================================================

To enable readers to understand Lovett's approach to the rings of fraction construction, I am providing Lovett Section 6.2 up to an including the remarks following Definition 6.2.4 ... as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/6462
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/6463
https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/6464
 
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The simple reason is that any element $q\in Q$ can be realized as $q={a\over b}$ with $b>0$. If a denominator is negative, just multiply numerator and denominator by -1.

Formally, let $Q_1$ be the ring constructed with denominators positive. It's then easy to verify that the "identity" map from $Q_1$ to $Q$ is an isomorphism.
 
johng said:
The simple reason is that any element $q\in Q$ can be realized as $q={a\over b}$ with $b>0$. If a denominator is negative, just multiply numerator and denominator by -1.

Formally, let $Q_1$ be the ring constructed with denominators positive. It's then easy to verify that the "identity" map from $Q_1$ to $Q$ is an isomorphism.
Thanks johng ... appreciate the help ...

Peter
 

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