I Scale invariance in the power spectrum

windy miller
Messages
306
Reaction score
28
I understand the inflation predicts a nearly scale invariant power spectrum but some have claimed this was predicted before inflation (by Harrison and Zeldovitch?)
My understanding is that perfectly scale invariance would predict ns=1 but inflation predicts ns =.96. So did the prior prediction ( if this claim is true) predict ns=1 or ns=.96 ?
 
Space news on Phys.org
Inflation doesn't predict a specific value of the scalar spectral index (##n_s##). Instead, there are a wide variety of models of inflation and they can all have rather different values for ##n_s##. Inflation predicts a spectral index different from one (usually less) because inflation has to come to an end. The different inflation models end in slightly different ways, leading to different predictions.

From what I recall, the Harrison-Zeldovitch spectrum, which simply assumes scale invariance, wasn't ever a proper physical model of the universe. It more or less just assumes that there are these perturbations, and that they are scale invariant, but doesn't actually have a workable model that would cause that.

So when we got to the point of measuring this spectrum in the early 2000's with the launch of WMAP, the prevailing view was that the most likely result would have been a spectral index somewhat different from one, with ##n_s = 1## considered to be a null hypothesis.
 
Thanks you for that's its very interesting. Would I be correct to assume then the Harrison Zeldovich spectrum would have assume to be exactly one if they were just assuming scale invariance without a model to produce it?
 
windy miller said:
Thanks you for that's its very interesting. Would I be correct to assume then the Harrison Zeldovich spectrum would have assume to be exactly one if they were just assuming scale invariance without a model to produce it?
Yes. The HZ spectrum has n=1.
 
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Recombination_(cosmology) Was a matter density right after the decoupling low enough to consider the vacuum as the actual vacuum, and not the medium through which the light propagates with the speed lower than ##({\epsilon_0\mu_0})^{-1/2}##? I'm asking this in context of the calculation of the observable universe radius, where the time integral of the inverse of the scale factor is multiplied by the constant speed of light ##c##.
The formal paper is here. The Rutgers University news has published a story about an image being closely examined at their New Brunswick campus. Here is an excerpt: Computer modeling of the gravitational lens by Keeton and Eid showed that the four visible foreground galaxies causing the gravitational bending couldn’t explain the details of the five-image pattern. Only with the addition of a large, invisible mass, in this case, a dark matter halo, could the model match the observations...
Hi, I’m pretty new to cosmology and I’m trying to get my head around the Big Bang and the potential infinite extent of the universe as a whole. There’s lots of misleading info out there but this forum and a few others have helped me and I just wanted to check I have the right idea. The Big Bang was the creation of space and time. At this instant t=0 space was infinite in size but the scale factor was zero. I’m picturing it (hopefully correctly) like an excel spreadsheet with infinite...
Back
Top