Schrodinger equation normalization to find A -Griffiths

Gary Roach
Messages
20
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


In David Griffiths Introduction to Quantum Mechanics (2nd ed.), page 32 he normalizes a time independent wave function to get the coefficient A. He dropped the sine part of the integration with no explanation. What is the justification.

Homework Equations


The time independant wave function given is \varphi = Asin(kx)
Griffiths gets :
\int^{a}_{0}|A|^{2}sin^{2}(kx) dx = |A|^{2}\frac{a}{2} = 1
But:
cos(2kx) = 1 - 2sin^{2}(kx)
and:
sin^{2}(kx) = \frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{2}cos(2kx)
This means that the integral should really give:
|A|^{2}(\frac{a}{2} - \frac{1}{4k}sin(2ka))

The Attempt at a Solution


What is the justification for dropping the sine term.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Should this be in the homework section? Anyway, with the information given, there is no justification. But I am guessing there is more information given in the book. Does it say anything about what the value of the wave function is when x=a?
 
The spatial frequency k takes on only certain values in order to satisfy the boundary conditions. For those values, you have that sin(2ka)=0.
 
Yes at x=a, x=0
Also not sure where this should go. It is a clarification of the textbook not a homework problem. At least this was my reasoning. I've been wrong before.

Gary
 
Thank you Vela.
I had fogotten that. That makes sense. It's too bad that Griffiths didn't point this out. Generally the text is great, especially for self study but he sloughs thing sometimes.
 
Thread 'Need help understanding this figure on energy levels'
This figure is from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths (3rd edition). It is available to download. It is from page 142. I am hoping the usual people on this site will give me a hand understanding what is going on in the figure. After the equation (4.50) it says "It is customary to introduce the principal quantum number, ##n##, which simply orders the allowed energies, starting with 1 for the ground state. (see the figure)" I still don't understand the figure :( Here is...
Thread 'Understanding how to "tack on" the time wiggle factor'
The last problem I posted on QM made it into advanced homework help, that is why I am putting it here. I am sorry for any hassle imposed on the moderators by myself. Part (a) is quite easy. We get $$\sigma_1 = 2\lambda, \mathbf{v}_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_2 = \lambda, \mathbf{v}_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} \sigma_3 = -\lambda, \mathbf{v}_3 = \begin{pmatrix} 1/\sqrt{2} \\ -1/\sqrt{2} \\ 0 \end{pmatrix} $$ There are two ways...
Back
Top