dannysaf
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Let lim n →∞ XnYn = 0. Is it true that Limn →∞ Xn= 0
or Limn →∞Yn = 0 (or both)?
or Limn →∞Yn = 0 (or both)?
njama said:lim n →∞ XnYn = lim n →∞ Xn * lim n →∞ Yn
njama said:lim n →∞ XnYn = lim n →∞ Xn * lim n →∞ Yn
VietDao29 said:Well, this is only true when both xn, and yn have limits. So, what if they don't?Say, what if they're oscillating?
Elucidus said:This example satisfies the original claim that at least one of the sequences converges to 0. A counter example for this must consist of two sequences whose product vanishes but both sequence do not converge to 0.
--Elucidus
VietDao29 said:You've misquoted yet again, Elucidus..![]()
You shouldn't forget to wear your glasses, then..![]()
fmam3 said:Simple counterexample. Clearly, \lim 1/n = \lim \(n \cdot 1/n^2 \) = 0 but we have that \lim n = +\infty and \lim 1/n^2 = 0.
Excellent example. However, neither x_n nor y_n converges and the O.P. finally told us.g_edgar said:Let x_n be alternately 1 and 0, let y_n be alternately 0 and 1.
Then x_n y_n = 0 for all n, but neither individual limit exists. In particular, neither individual limit is zero.
Yup, sorry I forgot to mention that the series must converge, in other way they would be divergent and we could not separate them.
HallsofIvy said:Excellent example. However, neither x_n nor y_n converges and the O.P. finally told us.