JonF
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If P(X) denotes the power set of X. Is |P(A)| = |P(B)| iff A=B true? If so, I have no idea how to prove the |P(A)| => |P(B)| iff A=B direction, so any hints would be great.
CRGreathouse said:Does |P(A)| = |P(B)| imply |A| = |B| for infinite sets without the CH?
Why do you know that? That's false for most bijections \mathcal{P}(A) \rightarrow \mathcal{P}(B).CrankFan said:the restriction of g to the set A_s, is a bijection from A_s to B_s