Show a real, smooth function of Hermitian operator is Hermitian

Ikaros
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Homework Statement



If B is Hermitian, show that BN and the real, smooth function f(B) is as well.

Homework Equations



The operator B is Hermitian if \int { { f }^{ * }(x)Bg(x)dx= } { \left[ \int { { g }^{ * }(x)Bf(x) } \right] }^{ * }

The Attempt at a Solution



Below is my complete solution. I'm hoping someone can review and let me know if it is okay.

Given the operator B, we can define the operator BN as B\cdotB\cdotB\cdot...BN. Using this, we can show:

<br /> \int { { f }^{ * }(x){ B }^{ N }g(x)dx= } \\ \int { { f }^{ * }(x){ B }BB...{ B }_{ N }g(x)dx= } \\ { \left[ \int { { g }^{ * }(x){ B }BB...{ B }_{ N }f(x) } \right] }^{ * }=\\ \int { { g }(x){ { B }^{ * } }{ B }^{ * }{ B }^{ * }...{ B }^{ * }_{ N }{ f }^{ * }(x) } =\\ \int { { g }(x){ B }^{ { N }^{ * } }{ f }^{ * }(x) } \\ <br />

Therefore, BN is also Hermitian.

Given the operator B, we can define the smooth function f(B) by a Taylor series expansion:

f(B)=\sum _{ N=0 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ N! } \frac { { \partial }^{ N }f }{ \partial { B }^{ N } } } { B }^{ N }

Since B0 = 1 and \frac { { \partial }^{ N }f }{ \partial { B }^{ N } } can be treated as scalar derivatives of a normal function (a number) and BN was shown to be Hermitian, we're left with a scalar multiplied by a Hermitian, which is itself Hermitian.
 
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I've sought assistance from others regarding the above, and everyone believes it's okay . However, I'd love some feedback in this thread on my approach.
 
Ikaros said:
I've sought assistance from others regarding the above, and everyone believes it's okay . However, I'd love some feedback in this thread on my approach.

I would say exactly the same thing. If B is hermitian then B^N is hermitian. If B^N is hermitian then any power series in B is also hermitian. Do you see any flaw in that?
 
Hi Dick and thanks for your reply. I don't see any flaw in the reasoning, but I'm hoping my solution above conveys this clearly.
 
Ikaros said:
Hi Dick and thanks for your reply. I don't see any flaw in the reasoning, but I'm hoping my solution above conveys this clearly.

It's clear enough to me. But I do think the notation is a little ugly. And are you clear on what something like ##B^*## means? Using bra-ket notation would make this a lot nicer.
 
What does the notation ##\frac{\partial^N f}{\partial B^N}## mean? I don't think I've ever encountered that...
 
Dick said:
It's clear enough to me. But I do think the notation is a little ugly. And are you clear on what something like ##B^*## means? Using bra-ket notation would make this a lot nicer.

Thanks Dick. I should be practicing my Dirac notation more...

##\left< { f }|{ \hat { B } }|{ g } \right> ={ \left< { g }|{ \hat { B } }|{ f } \right> }^{ * }##

As for ##B^*##, it is the Hermitian conjugate. In this case, I probably should be using the dagger notation ##{ B }^{ \dagger }##.

micromass said:
What does the notation ##\frac{\partial^N f}{\partial B^N}## mean? I don't think I've ever encountered that...

I may have been a bit lazy with the notation there because my cut and paste from LaTex didn't work. I'll cut and paste the image.

I've been shown that a function of an operator f(A) can be defined by a Taylor series expansion:

EnP6p7u.png


where
9xJtFlM.png
is a scalar calculated in the same way as the derivative of a normal function.
 
Ikaros said:
Thanks Dick. I should be practicing my Dirac notation more...

##\left< { f }|{ \hat { B } }|{ g } \right> ={ \left< { g }|{ \hat { B } }|{ f } \right> }^{ * }##

As for ##B^*##, it is the Hermitian conjugate. In this case, I probably should be using the dagger notation ##{ B }^{ \dagger }##.

Sure. So Hermitian means ##<f|Bg>=<Bf|g>## for any f and g. That makes it 'almost' obvious that ##<f|B^ng>=<B^nf|g>##. If it's not sufficiently obvious, it's easy to formalize the proof with induction.
 
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