Show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian operator are real.

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SUMMARY

The eigenvalues of a Hermitian operator are proven to be real through the relationship between eigenfunctions and their corresponding eigenvalues. By demonstrating that the expectation value of an observable represented by a Hermitian operator remains equal to its complex conjugate, it follows that the eigenvalues must also be real. The proof utilizes the properties of inner products and the definition of expectation values in quantum mechanics, specifically referencing the work from "Introduction to Quantum Mechanics" by Griffiths.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics
  • Familiarity with eigenvalues and eigenfunctions
  • Knowledge of expectation values and inner products
  • Basic principles of quantum mechanics as outlined in Griffiths' textbook
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of Hermitian operators in quantum mechanics
  • Learn about the integral form of expectation values in quantum mechanics
  • Explore the implications of self-adjoint operators on eigenvalue spectra
  • Review the mathematical foundations of inner products in Hilbert spaces
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Students and professionals in quantum mechanics, physicists focusing on operator theory, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of quantum observables.

leoflindall
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Homework Statement



Show that the eigenvalues of a hermitian operator are real. Show the expectation value of the hamiltonian is real.

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



How do i approach this question? I can show that the operator is hermitian by showing that Tmn = (Tnm)* with no problems.

I know that the outcome of a measurement must be real, so;

<Q> = <Q>*

Do I need to apply a Hermitian operator to a wave function, and determine the expectation value and show that this satisfys the above condition?

And if so how do i show this in general?

*****UPDATED*****
I have found the following proof (Intro to quantum mechanics, griffiths)

Suppose Q^ f = q f, (1)

(f(x) is an eigenfunction of Q^ , with eigenvlaue q), and;

< f l Q^ f > = < Q^ f l f > (2)

then

q < f l f > = q* < f l f > (3)

as < f l f > cannot be zero, then q must equal q*, and thus the eigen values are real.

Is it possible to do this proof in intergral form? I kind of understand this, but any additional explanation of the step between (2) and (3) would be really helpfull.

How do I follow on from this to show that the expectation value must also be real?

I know this isn't hard but have managed to confuse myself, and advice would be greatly appreciated.

Leo
 
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Remind yourself what the integral form of expectation value is. Write it down, then remember what was taught in your class about these inner products. :) Should be simple from there.
 
Do you have somewhere in your notes a definition for the expectation value of an observable represented by an operator A in an arbitrary state represented by a unit vector \psi ? Use it and use the fact that, if A can be chosen for simplicity as only posessing a spectrum made up only of eigenvalues and A is self-adjoint, the Hilbert space A <lives> in admits a denumerable basis made up only from A's eigenvectors. On a second thought, trash that. It's an unnecessary complication. Just use the definition of expectation value and the one for hermiticity (or symmetry for the mathematically minded reader).
 

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